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3 years ago

What can happen overnight to soil?

1 answer:

7 0

(GABS) Overnight, all of the particles settled down to the bottom , and the larger particles were on the bottom and the smaller particles were on the top. Therefore, clay was on top, hummus was in the middle, and soil was on the bottom.
Particles dissolve is an unique way

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The energy stored in a wooden log transforms when the log is burned. Which of the following explanations BEST describes how the

Makovka662 [10]

Answer:

D. the amount of chemical energy equals the amount of heat and light energy.

Explanation:

Given that the first law of thermodynamics affirmed that energy is neither created nor destroyed however, it can be transformed from one form to another. In other words, while, during the transformation of energy, no energy is lost, the input energy is also equal to output energy.

Hence, the chemical energy stored in the log is EQUAL to the heat and light energy produced by burning.

5 0

2 years ago

which has a higher acceleration:a 10kg object acted upon with a net force of 20N or an 18kg object acted on by a net force of 20

MA_775_DIABLO [31]

<span>Answer: The acceleration of 10 kg object is greater than that of 18 kg object.

Explanation:
According to Newton's Second law:
F = ma --- (A)

Let's find the acceleration for both 10 kg and 18 kg objects!
The net force on both of these masses = F = 20N

(1) Acceleration of 10 kg object
Mass = m = 10 kg
Plug in the values in equation (A):
20 = 10 * a
Acceleration = a = 2 m/s^2

(2) Acceleration of 18 kg object
Mass = m = 18 kg
Plug in the values in equation (A):

20 = 18 * a
Acceleration = a = 1.11 m/s^2

2 > 1.11; therefore, 10 kg object has the higher acceleration compared to the acceleration of the 18 kg object.</span>

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

An electron moves at 0.130 c as shown in the figure (Figure 1). There are points: A, B, C, and D 2.10 μm from the electron.

Olegator [25]

Hi there!

We can use Biot-Savart's Law for a moving particle:
$B= \frac{\mu_0 }{4\pi}\frac{q\vec{v}\times \vec{r}}{r^2 }$

B = Magnetic field strength (T)
v = velocity of electron (0.130c = 3.9 × 10⁷ m/s)

q = charge of particle (1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C)

μ₀ = Permeability of free space (4π × 10⁻⁷ Tm/A)

r = distance from particle (2.10 μm)

There is a cross product between the velocity vector and the radius vector (not a quantity, but specifies a direction). We can write this as:

$B= \frac{\mu_0 }{4\pi}\frac{q\vec{v} \vec{r}sin\theta}{r^2 }$

Where 'θ' is the angle between the velocity and radius vectors.

a)
To find the angle between the velocity and radius vector, we find the complementary angle:

θ = 90° - 60° = 30°

Plugging 'θ' into the equation along with our other values:

$B= \frac{\mu_0 }{4\pi}\frac{q\vec{v} \vec{r}sin\theta}{r^2 }\\\\B= \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7})}{4\pi}\frac{(1.6*10^{-19})(3.9*10^{7}) \vec{r}sin(30)}{(2.1*10^{-5})^2 }$

$B = \boxed{7.07 *10^{-10} T}$

b)
Repeat the same process. The angle between the velocity and radius vector is 150°, and its sine value is the same as that of sin(30°). So, the particle's produced field will be the same as that of part A.

In this instance, the radius vector and the velocity vector are perpendicular so

'θ' = 90°.

$B= \frac{(4\pi *10^{-7})}{4\pi}\frac{(1.6*10^{-19})(3.9*10^{7}) \vec{r}sin(90)}{(2.1*10^{-5})^2 } = \boxed{1.415 * 10^{-9}T}$

d)
This point is ALONG the velocity vector, so there is no magnetic field produced at this point.

Aka, the radius and velocity vectors are parallel, and since sin(0) = 0, there is no magnetic field at this point.

$\boxed{B = 0 T}$

3 0

2 years ago

In a fit of rage about distance learning, you throw your computer out the window with an initial velocity of 3 m/s and it breaks

lesya692 [45]

Answer:

9 m

Explanation:

i did the test and got 100%

3 0

2 years ago

A large fake cookie sliding on a horizontal surface is attached to one end of a horizontal spring with spring constant k = 440 N

irinina [24]

Answer:

a) 0.275 m b) 13.6 J

Explanation:

In absence of friction, the energy is exchanged between the spring (potential energy) and the cookie (kinetic energy), so at any point, the sum of both energies must be the same:

E = ½ kx2 + ½ mv2

If we take as initial state, the instant when the cookie is passing through the spring’s equilibrium position, all the energy is kinetic, and we know that is equal to 20.0 J.

After sliding to the right, while is being acted on by a friction force, it came momentarily at rest. At this point, the initial kinetic energy, has become potential elastic energy, in part, and in thermal energy also, represented by the work done by the friction force.

So, for this state, we can say the following:

Ki = Uf + Eth = ½* k*d2 + Ff*d

20.0J = ½ *440 N/m* d2 + 11.0 *d, where d is the compressed length of the spring, which is equal to the distance travelled by the cookie before coming momentarily at rest.

We have a quadratic equation, that, after simplifying terms, can be solved as follows, applying the quadratic formula:

d = -0.05/2 +/- √0.090625 = -0.025 +/- 0.3 = 0.275 m (we take the positive root)

b) If we take as our new initial status the moment at which the spring is compressed, and the cookie is at rest, all the energy is potential:

E = Ui = 1/2 k d²

In this case, d is the same value that we got in a), i.e., 0.275 m (as the distance travelled by the cookie after going through the equilibrium point is the same length that the spring have been compressed).

E= 1/2 440 N/m . (0.275)m² = 16.6 J

When the cookie passes again through the equilibrium position, the energy will be in part kinetic, and in part, it will have become thermal energy again.

So, we can write the following equation:

Kf = Ui - Ff.d = 16.6 J - 11.0 (0.275) m = 16.6 J - 3.03 J = 13.6 J

3 0

3 years ago