Answer: it is -1
Step-by-step explanation: rate of change can be defined as Δy/Δx, or the change in y over the change in c (commonly referred to as rise over run). By looking at the numbers we can see that the relationship modeled is linear (has a constant rate of change), so we are able to use this formula to calculate its rate of change. Simply calculate the change between any two values of y and (the associated) values of x and divide them to obtain your solution. I’m not the best at explaining math in words so here is the solution represented symbolically:
Rate of change = Δy/Δx
Δy/Δx = (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)
(y2-y1)/(x2-x1) = (1 - (-2))/(2 - 5) //the selected values for y2,y1,x2, and x1 are the last and first values for each, respectively.
3/-3 = -1
Answer:
0.41666666666
Step-by-step explanation:
I used a calculator.
1) Our marbles will be blue, red, and green. You need two fractions that can be multiplied together to make 1/6. There are two sets of numbers that can be multiplied to make 6: 1 and 6, and 2 and 3. If you give the marbles a 1/1 chance of being picked, then there's no way that a 1/6 chance can be present So we need to use a 1/3 and a 1/2 chance. 2 isn't a factor of 6, but 3 is. So we need the 1/3 chance to become apparent first. Therefore, 3 of the marbles will need to be one colour, to make a 1/3 chance of picking them out of the 9. So let's say 3 of the marbles are green. So now you have 8 marbles left, and you need a 1/2 chance of picking another colour. 8/2 = 4, so 4 of the marbles must be another colour, to make a 1/2 chance of picking them. So let's say 4 of the marbles are blue. We know 3 are green and 4 are blue, 3 + 4 is 7, so the last 2 must be red.
The problem could look like this:
A bag contains 4 blue marbles, 2 red marbles, and 3 green marbles. What are the chances she will pick 1 blue and 1 green marble?
You should note that picking the blue first, then the green, will make no difference to the overall probability, it's still 1/6. Don't worry, I checked
2) a - 2% as a probability is 2/100, or 1/50. The chance of two pudding cups, as the two aren't related, both being defective in the same packet are therefore 1/50 * 1/50, or 1/2500.
b - 1,000,000/2500 = 400
400 packages are defective each year
Answer:
the answer to this is b( 2,-8)
