Answer:
Reserves fall by $2 million, and the monetary base falls by $2 million.
Explanation:
In the books of First National Bank, the purchase of $2 million of bonds by First National Bank, from the Federal Reserve means there is a reserve with the Federal Reserve represented by security which stands as asset.
In the books of the Federal Reserve, The sales of bonds to First National Bank will create a liability from the reserve assets.
See attached for the T-accounts explain the answer
Answer:
Unrealized gains and losses treatment:
Available for sale - recorded in OCI
Held till maturity - not recognized in financial statements until maturity
Held for Trading - Fair value through profit and loss
Explanation:
There are three categories of financial instruments. Available for Sale AFS, Held for trading HFT and Held till maturity HTM. Financial instruments are classified in these categories and then treatments is according to their classification. IAS 39 and IFRS 9 have provided complete guidelines for the treatment of the financial securities.
A free trade agreement or treaty is a multinational agreement according to international law to form a free-trade area between the cooperating states
Answer:
I would go ahead and avail this opportunity. Although it is a wide spread phenomenon that one should only acquire a degree in a field which is at a boom and is possibly going to be successful in the future. But times keep changing. Fields and phenomenon which did not have a chance in the past have now become most successful with unfulfilled potential.
On the other hand, acquiring college education is a luxury. 4 years without paying for it is a chance that nobody should miss. You can come up with creative ideas to make that degree work. Besides, people do not actually get the jobs according to their degrees. So there is a possibility that I would land a job.
Answer:
c) $5.68
Explanation:
The worth of this stock today is the present value of the future dividends which is computed by discounting future dividends as well as the terminal value using the required rate of return of 14.5% as the appropriate discount rate as shown thus:
Year 1 dividend=$.65
Year 2 dividend=$0.70
Year 3 dividend=$0.75
terminal value of dividends=Year 3 dividend*(1+g)/Ke-g
g=dividend terminal growth rate=2%
Ke=required rate of return=14.5%
terminal value of dividends=$0.75*(1+2%)/(14.5%-2%)=$ 6.12
Share price=$.65/(1+14.5%)^1+$.70/(1+14.5%)^2+$.75/(1+14.5%)^3+$6.12/(1+14.5%)^3
share price=$5.68
