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DedPeter [7]
2 years ago
15

Change 04:35 to 12 hours clock time​

Mathematics
1 answer:
mote1985 [20]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

4:35 am

Step-by-step explanation:

change 04:35 to 12 hours clock time

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Rockwell hardness of pins of a certain type is known to have a mean value of 50 and a standard deviation of 1.8. (Round your ans
Alenkinab [10]

Answer:

a) 0.011 = 1.1% probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 17 pins is at least 51

b) 0.0001 = 0.1% probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 45 pins is at least 51

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this question, we need to understand the normal probability distribution and the central limit theorem.

Normal probability distribution

Problems of normally distributed samples are solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean \mu and standard deviation \sigma, the zscore of a measure X is given by:

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Central Limit Theorem

The Central Limit Theorem estabilishes that, for a normally distributed random variable X, with mean \mu and standard deviation \sigma, the sampling distribution of the sample means with size n can be approximated to a normal distribution with mean \mu and standard deviation s = \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}.

For a skewed variable, the Central Limit Theorem can also be applied, as long as n is at least 30.

In this problem, we have that:

\mu = 50, \sigma = 1.8

(a) If the distribution is normal, what is the probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 17 pins is at least 51?

Here n = 17, s = \frac{1.8}{\sqrt{17}} = 0.4366

This probability is 1 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 51. So

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

By the Central Limit Theorem

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{s}

Z = \frac{51 - 50}{0.4366}

Z = 2.29

Z = 2.29 has a pvalue of 0.9890

1 - 0.989 = 0.011

0.011 = 1.1% probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 17 pins is at least 51

(b) What is the (approximate) probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 45 pins is at least 51?

Here n = 17, s = \frac{1.8}{\sqrt{45}} = 0.2683

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{s}

Z = \frac{51 - 50}{0.0.2683}

Z = 3.73

Z = 3.73 has a pvalue of 0.9999

1 - 0.9999 = 0.0001

0.0001 = 0.1% probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 45 pins is at least 51

8 0
3 years ago
SoIve the system of equations by elimination. (Addition)<br> 1)-2x + 4y = -22<br> 2x + 8y = –26
Rufina [12.5K]

Answee:

We have these two equations:

-2x +4y =-22

2x + 8y -26

We need to try to get the same number multiplying both x or y, I think we can make the 2 of the first equation negative, for that, we multiply all the equation by -1:

2x + 8y =-26  ---- -2x - 8y =26

Now we have this:

-2x +4y = -22

-2x -8y = 26

Now e substract both equations:

-2x - (-2x) +4y -(-8y) = -22-26

12y = -48

Y = -48/12 = -4

And we replace to get x

-2x + 4y = -22

-2x +4*(-4)=-22

-2x - 16 = -22

x= -6/-2 =3

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
It is generally believed that the mean value of the district's total SAT score distribution is equal to 1200 (the null hypothesi
g100num [7]

Answer:

The corresponding p-value, is p = 1

Step-by-step explanation:

The maximum score SAT score, n =  1,600

The mean of the district's total SAT score distribution = 1,200

The claim of one of the districts principal, is the that mean of the district's total SAT score distribution ≠ 1,200

Using proportions, we have;

p = 1,200/1,600 = 0.75

q = 1 - p = 0.25

The margin of error, E = Z√(p·q/n)

∴ E = 5% = Z×√((0.75 × 0.25)/1,600)

z = 0.05/(√((0.75 × 0.25)/1,600)) ≈ 4.61880

Therefore, the corresponding p-value, p = 1

7 0
3 years ago
An airplane left Miami, FL. At the same time another plane left Santiago, Chile. The two planes flew toward each other at rates
Zinaida [17]

Answer:

3.5

Step-by-step explanation:

First we use the concept of relative speed.

The rates of the 2 planes are 625 mph & 575 mph. 

Relative speed will be:

(speed of plane A)+(speed of plane B)

=625+575

=1,200 mph

Distance=4200 miles

Thus the time taken for them to meet will be:

Time=distance/speed

=4200/1200

=3.5 hours

We therefore conclude that the planes met after 3.5 hours.

Hope this helps!

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help me this is due in the morning and I’m not very good at fractions (number two btw)
icang [17]
The answers will be -5,-1,-1 and 1
3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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