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2 years ago

In the diagram below, what is the value of X?

Mathematics

1 answer:

Agata [3.3K]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

x=15

Step-by-step explanation:

Well we start with the fundamentals of a triangle we know that all the angles of a triangle add up to 180*, so you can start by adding 55* and 65* and end up with 120* then you can add 30* and get 150* then you can take the total of 150* and subtract it from 180* to get 30 now you take that 30 and divide it by 2 and get 15* for the final angle of the triangle.

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What is the completely simplified equivalent of 2/(5+i)?

Bezzdna [24]

namely, let's rationalize the denominator in the fraction, for which case we'll be using the <u>conjugate</u> of that denominator, so we'll multiply top and bottom by its <u>conjugate</u>.

so the denominator is 5 + i, simply enough, its conjugate is just 5 - i, recall that same/same = 1, thus (5-i)/(5-i) = 1, and any expression multiplied by 1 is just itself, so we're not really changing the fraction per se.

$\bf \cfrac{2}{5+i}\cdot \cfrac{5-i}{5-i}\implies \cfrac{2(5-i)}{\stackrel{\textit{difference of squares}}{(5+i)(5-i)}}\implies \cfrac{2(5-i)}{\stackrel{\textit{recall }i^2=-1}{5^2-i^2}}\implies \cfrac{2(5-i)}{25-(-1)} \\\\\\ \cfrac{2(5-i)}{25+1}\implies \cfrac{2(5-i)}{26}\implies \cfrac{5-i}{13}$

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3 years ago

24 PTS.!!!!!!VERY VERY VERY URGENT PLEASE HELP!!!!!!!! find the least common multiples of 24, 36 and 40 (no listing method!!)

frez [133]

Answer: 360

Step-by-step explanation: don't know how

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3 years ago

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A sequence is a function whose domain is the set of __numbers.

MariettaO [177]

Answer - natural

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3 years ago

The prior probabilities for events A1 and A2 are P(A1) = 0.20 and P(A2) = 0.80. It is also known that P(A1 ∩ A2) = 0. Suppose P(

Umnica [9.8K]

Answer:

(a) $A_1$ and $A_2$ are indeed mutually-exclusive.

(b) $\displaystyle P(A_1\; \cap \; B) = \frac{1}{20}$ , whereas $\displaystyle P(A_2\; \cap \; B) = \frac{1}{25}$ .

(d) $\displaystyle P(A_1 \; |\; B) \approx \frac{5}{9}$ , whereas $P(A_1 \; |\; B) = \displaystyle \frac{4}{9}$

Step-by-step explanation:

$P(A_1 \; \cap \; A_2) = 0$ means that it is impossible for events $A_1$ and $A_2$ to happen at the same time. Therefore, event $A_1$ and $A_2$ are mutually-exclusive.

By the definition of conditional probability:

$\displaystyle P(B \; | \; A_1) = \frac{P(B \; \cap \; A_1)}{P(B)} = \frac{P(A_1 \; \cap \; B)}{P(B)}$ .

Rearrange to obtain:

$\displaystyle P(A_1 \; \cap \; B) = P(B \; |\; A_1) \cdot P(A_1) = 0.25 \times 0.20 = \frac{1}{20}$ .

Similarly:

$\displaystyle P(A_2 \; \cap \; B) = P(B \; |\; A_2) \cdot P(A_2) = 0.80 \times 0.05 = \frac{1}{25}$ .

Note that:

$\begin{aligned}P(A_1 \; \cup \; A_2) &= P(A_1) + P(A_2) - P(A_1 \; \cap \; A_2) = 0.20 + 0.80 = 1\end{aligned}$ .

In other words, $A_1$ and $A_2$ are collectively-exhaustive. Since $A_1$ and $A_2$ are collectively-exhaustive and mutually-exclusive at the same time:

$\displaystyle P(B) = P(B \; \cap \; A_1) + P(B \; \cap \; A_2) = \frac{1}{20} + \frac{1}{25} = \frac{9}{100}$ .

By Bayes' Theorem:

$\begin{aligned} P(A_1 \; |\; B) &= \frac{P(B \; | \; A_1) \cdot P(A_1)}{P(B)} \\ &= \frac{0.25 \times 0.20}{9/100} = \frac{0.05 \times 100}{9} = \frac{5}{9}\end{aligned}$ .

Similarly:

$\begin{aligned} P(A_2 \; |\; B) &= \frac{P(B \; | \; A_2) \cdot P(A_2)}{P(B)} \\ &= \frac{0.05 \times 0.80}{9/100} = \frac{0.04 \times 100}{9} = \frac{4}{9}\end{aligned}$ .

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