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2 years ago

Why is acceleration of an object moving at a constant velocity always zero?

Physics

1 answer:

k0ka [10]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

If an object is moving with a constant velocity, then by definition it has zero acceleration. So there is no net force acting on the object. The total work done on the object is thus 0 (that's not to say that there isn't work done by individual forces on the object, but the sum is 0 ).

Explanation:

In the middle, when the object was changing position at a constant velocity, the acceleration was 0. This is because the object is no longer changing its velocity and is moving at a constant rate.

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A particle of mass M moves along a straight line with initial speed vi. A force of magnitude F pushes the particle a distance D

RideAnS [48]

Answer:

Explanation:

Initial kinetic energy of M = 1/2 M vi²

let final velocity be vf

v² = u² + 2a s

vf² = vi² + 2 (F / M) x D

Kinetic energy

= 1/2 Mvf²

= 1/2 M ( vi² + 2 (F / M) x D

1/2 M vi² + FD

Ratio with initial value

1/2 M vi² + FD) / 1/2 M vi²

RK = 1 + FD / 2 M vi²

4 0

3 years ago

Compare the wavelengths of an electron (mass = 9.11 × 10−31 kg) and a proton (mass = 1.67 × 10−27 kg), each having (a) a speed o

Ad libitum [116K]

Answer:

Part A:

The proton has a smaller wavelength than the electron.

$\lambda_{proton} = 6.05x10^{-14}m$ < $\lambda_{electron} = 1.10x10^{-10}m$

Part B:

The proton has a smaller wavelength than the electron.

$\lambda_{proton} = 1.29x10^{-13}m$ < $\lambda_{electron} = 5.525x10^{-12}m$

Explanation:

The wavelength of each particle can be determined by means of the De Broglie equation.

$\lambda = \frac{h}{p}$ (1)

Where h is the Planck's constant and p is the momentum.

$\lambda = \frac{h}{mv}$ (2)

Part A

Case for the electron:

$\lambda = \frac{6.624x10^{-34} J.s}{(9.11x10^{-31}Kg)(6.55x10^{6}m/s)}$

But $J = Kg.m^{2}/s^{2}$

$\lambda = \frac{6.624x10^{-34}Kg.m^{2}/s^{2}.s}{(9.11x10^{-31}Kg)(6.55x10^{6}m/s)}$

$\lambda = 1.10x10^{-10}m$

Case for the proton:

$\lambda = \frac{6.624x10^{-34}Kg.m^{2}/s^{2}.s}{(1.67x10^{-27}Kg)(6.55x10^{6}m/s)}$

$\lambda = 6.05x10^{-14}m$

Hence, the proton has a smaller wavelength than the electron.

<em>Part B </em>

For part b, the wavelength of the electron and proton for that energy will be determined.

First, it is necessary to find the velocity associated to that kinetic energy:

$KE = \frac{1}{2}mv^{2}$

$2KE = mv^{2}$

$v^{2} = \frac{2KE}{m}$

$v = \sqrt{\frac{2KE}{m}}$ (3)

Case for the electron:

$v = \sqrt{\frac{2(7.89x10^{-15}J)}{9.11x10^{-31}Kg}}$

but $1J = kg \cdot m^{2}/s^{2}$

$v = \sqrt{\frac{2(7.89x10^{-15}kg \cdot m^{2}/s^{2})}{9.11x10^{-31}Kg}}$

$v = 1.316x10^{8}m/s$

Then, equation 2 can be used:

$\lambda = \frac{6.624x10^{-34}Kg.m^{2}/s^{2}.s}{(9.11x10^{-31}Kg)(1.316x10^{8}m/s)}$

$\lambda = 5.525x10^{-12}m$

Case for the proton :

$v = \sqrt{\frac{2(7.89x10^{-15}J)}{1.67x10^{-27}Kg}}$

But $1J = kg \cdot m^{2}/s^{2}$

$v = \sqrt{\frac{2(7.89x10^{-15}kg \cdot m^{2}/s^{2})}{1.67x10^{-27}Kg}}$

$v = 3.07x10^{6}m/s$

Then, equation 2 can be used:

$\lambda = \frac{6.624x10^{-34}Kg.m^{2}/s^{2}.s}{(1.67x10^{-27}Kg)(3.07x10^{6}m/s)}$

$\lambda = 1.29x10^{-13}m$

Hence, the proton has a smaller wavelength than the electron.

7 0

3 years ago

A steel piano string of mass per unit lenght 4×10-⁴kgm-¹ was struck, if the speed of the sound on the string is 300ms-¹. Calcula

attashe74 [19]

Answer:

36 N

Explanation:

Velocity of a standing wave in a stretched string is:

v = √(T/ρ),

where T is the tension and ρ is the mass per unit length.

300 m/s = √(T / 4×10⁻⁴ kg/m)

T = 36 N

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2 years ago

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Natalija [7]

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6 0

3 years ago

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