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2 years ago

What is the name of this line?

Mathematics

2 answers:

Murrr4er [49]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

the answer is A

Hope This Helps!!!

Romashka-Z-Leto [24]2 years ago

4 0

Answer: C

Step-by-step explanation:

Because it is at angle

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Travelers who fail to cancel their hotel reservations when they have no intention of showing up are commonly referred to as no-s

notsponge [240]

Answer:

a) 0.0523 = 5.23% probability that at least two of the four selected will turn to be no-shows.

b) 0 is the most likely value for X.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each traveler who made a reservation, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they show up, or they do not. The probability of a traveler showing up is independent of other travelers. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

No-show rate of 10%.

This means that $p = 0.1$

Four travelers who have made hotel reservations in this study.

This means that $n = 4$

a) What is the probability that at least two of the four selected will turn to be no-shows?

This is $P(X \geq 2) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4)$

In which

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 2) = C_{4,2}.(0.1)^{2}.(0.9)^{2} = 0.0486$

$P(X = 3) = C_{4,3}.(0.1)^{3}.(0.9)^{1} = 0.0036$

$P(X = 4) = C_{4,4}.(0.1)^{4}.(0.9)^{0} = 0.0001$

$P(X \geq 2) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) = 0.0486 + 0.0036 + 0.0001 = 0.0523$

0.0523 = 5.23% probability that at least two of the four selected will turn to be no-shows.

b) What is the most likely value for X?

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{4,0}.(0.1)^{0}.(0.9)^{4} = 0.6561$

$P(X = 1) = C_{4,1}.(0.1)^{1}.(0.9)^{3} = 0.2916$

$P(X = 2) = C_{4,2}.(0.1)^{2}.(0.9)^{2} = 0.0486$

$P(X = 3) = C_{4,3}.(0.1)^{3}.(0.9)^{1} = 0.0036$

$P(X = 4) = C_{4,4}.(0.1)^{4}.(0.9)^{0} = 0.0001$

X = 0 has the highest probability, which means that 0 is the most likely value for X.

7 0

2 years ago

A private airplane leaves an airport and flies due east at 192 km/hr. Two hours later, a jet leaves the same airport and flies d

elixir [45]

The answer is 0.5 hours.

A velocity (v) of an object is a distance (d) divided by time (t):
v = d ÷ t ⇒ t = d ÷ v

It is given:
v1 = 192 km/h
v2 = 960 km/h
t1 - t2 = 2h
We need to calculate t2.

Since they will travel the same distance before the jet overtakes the plane, we can say that d1 = d2 = d

Now, let's express t1 and t2:
t1 = d/192
t2 = d/960

Therefore: d/192 - d/960 = 2
The least common denominator is 960, so:
5d/960 - d/960 = 2
4d/960 = 2
4d = 2 · 960
4d = 1920
d = 1920 ÷ 4 = 480 km

Now t2 = d/960 = 480/960 = 0.5 hours.

5 0

3 years ago

4y+8-2y if y=3 what is the answer

exis [7]

Answer:

14.

Step-by-step explanation:

Plug 3 in for y:

= 4(3) + 8 - 2(3)

= 12 + 8 - 6

= 14.

6 0

1 year ago

A bag contains 2 white marbles and 7 purple marbles. Two marbles are drawn at random. One marble is drawn and not replaced. Then

Masja [62]

A.
$\frac{7purple}{9total} * \frac{2white}{8total} \\ \frac{14}{72} \\ =0.194$
The denominator of the second number goes down one because you aren't replacing the initial marble pulled, making the amount of marbles in the bag go down, but not affecting the white count because you pulled a purple marble.
b.
$\frac{2white}{9total} * \frac{1white}{8total} \\ \frac{2}{72} \\ =0.278$
The same can be said about the denominator for this problem, but not the numerator. The numerator must go down one number as well, because you already chose one white marble, taking one of the white marbles out of the bag, leaving you with one solitary, white marble.
c.
Chance of selecting two purple marbles:
 $\frac{7purple}{9total} * \frac{6purple}{8total} \\ \frac{42}{72} \\ =0.583$
Chance of selecting two white marbles:
$\frac{2white}{9total} * \frac{1white}{8total} \\ \frac{2}{72} \\ =0.278$
Chance of selecting two purple vs. Chance of Selecting 2 white:
0.583>0.278.
It is more likely to select 2 purple marbles.

Hope this helps!

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Please help! i need to pass this class!!

torisob [31]

Angle B = 54°

Step-by-step explanation:

complimentary means they add up to 90

54 + 36 (angle A) = 90

also x= 51

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers