Due to the rise of industrialism, the north was mostly comprised by factories. In addition, white men in the north were literate at a higher rate than men in the South. Men in the north tended to be businessmen, scientists, etc (i.e. professionals as opposed to plantation owners/farmers like in the south). The south had a higher rate of illiteracy than the north, and was deeply influenced by an economy that depended on slavery and agriculture to thrive.
Explanation:
The term Moor is an exonym first used by Christian Europeans to designate the Muslim inhabitants of the Maghreb, the Iberian Peninsula, Sicily and Malta during the Middle Ages. The Moors initially were the indigenous Maghrebine Berbers.[1] The name was later also applied to Arabs and Arabized Iberians
Answer:
The second one
Explanation:
Because the climate and soil of the South were suitable for the cultivation of commercial (plantation) crops such as tobacco, rice, and indigo, slavery developed in the southern colonies on a much larger scale than in the northern colonies; the latter's labor needs were met primarily through the use of European Government.