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Elena-2011 [213]
2 years ago
13

A firm purchased $120,000 worth of light general-purpose trucks. The operations of the trucks lead to annual income of $60,000 f

or years 1~4. These trucks were then sold for $20,000 at the end of year 4. Assume a 30% combined tax rate. With a 40% bonus depreciation plus MACRS depreciation, do the following.
(a) (10 pts) Calculate the before-tax IRR.
(b) (10 pts) Calculate the after-tax IRR.
Business
1 answer:
Setler [38]2 years ago
5 0

The before-tax IRR is 37.93%

The after-tax IRR is 19.32%

The internal rate of return (IRR) is defined as the return rate on a project investment project over a periodic lifespan.

It is also referred to as the net present value of an investment project which is zero. It can be expressed by using the formula:

\mathbf{0= NPV \sum \limits ^{T}_{t=1} \dfrac{C_t}{(1+1RR)^t}- C_o}

where;

  • \mathbf{C_t} = net cash inflow for a time period (t)
  • \mathbf{C_o=} Total initial investment cost

<h3>(a)</h3>

For the before-tax IRR:

The cash outflow = $120000

Cash Inflow for the first three years = $60000

Cash inflow for the fourth year = $60000 + $20000 = $80000

∴

Using the above formula, we have:

\mathbf{0 = \dfrac{60000}{(1+r)^1}+ \dfrac{60000}{(1+r)^2}+ \dfrac{60000}{(1+r)^3}+ \dfrac{80000}{(1+r)^4}}

By solving the above equation:

r = 37.93%

<h3>(b) </h3>

For the after-tax IRR:

The cash outflow = $120000

Recall that:

  • Cash Inflow = Cash inflow × Tax rate

∴

For the first three years; the cash inflow is:

\mathbf{=60000 -(60000\times 0.3)  } \\ \\ \mathbf{ = 60000 -18000}  \\ \\ \mathbf{ = 42000}

For the fourth year, the cash inflow is

\mathbf{=80000 -(60000\times 0.3)  } \\ \\ \mathbf{ = 80000 -18000}  \\ \\ \mathbf{ = 62000}

Using the above IRR formula:

\mathbf{0 = \dfrac{42000}{(1+r)^1}+ \dfrac{42000}{(1+r)^2}+ \dfrac{42000}{(1+r)^3}+ \dfrac{62000}{(1+r)^4}}

By solving the above equation:

r = 19.32%

Learn more about the internal rate of return (IRR) here:

brainly.com/question/24301559

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Answer:

a. 1.096

Explanation:

The present value index is the same as the profitablility index(PI), which is computed by dividing the present value of future cash inflows by the initial investment(the present value of cash outflows). A profitability of above 1 means that the project is viable as the numerator(PV of cash inflows) exceeds the denominator( initial cash outlay).

Project A PI index= Present value of cash inflows/Present value of cash outflows

Project A PI index= $84,360/$77,000

Project A PI index= 1.096  

8 0
3 years ago
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Typically, stakeholders do not complain that the company is directionless after hearing a well-developed and expressed strategic vision.

<h3>What Is Vision, Exactly? And why is it so crucial for a leader to convey their vision?</h3>

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One of your responsibilities as a leader is to inspire dedication to your organization's goal, as stated in our handbook Communicating Your Vision. You must convey the vision in a way that matters to people in order to accomplish this. You want the organization's members to embrace the vision and spread it to others.

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7 0
1 year ago
An invoice for 450 has terms 2/10, 1/30, n/60. if you pay on the eighth day, how much will you remit
Ede4ka [16]
This would be your answer 450*. 98=$441
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How many days will it take for $1500 to earn $16 interest if it is deposited in a bank paying simple interest at the rate of 4%/
JulsSmile [24]

Answer:

97 days

Explanation:

In simple interest method, the interest is calculated by the following formula

I= P x R x T

I= interest

P = principal amount

R =interest rate

T= Time

In this case

I=$16

P=$1500$

R= 4% or 0.04%

T= time

$16= $1500 x 0.04 x Time

$16 =60 x Time

Time = 16/60

time = 0.2666 year.

time in days =  0.26666 x 365 days

=97.333 days

=97 days

8 0
3 years ago
West Corp. issued 25-year bonds two years ago at a coupon rate of 5.3 percent. The bonds make semiannual payments. If these bond
Nataliya [291]

Answer:

YTM is 4.94%

Explanation:

The  yield  to maturity is the return on the bond throughout the bond's tenure and can be computed using rate function in excel as shown below.

=rate(nper,pmt,-pv,fv)

nper is the number of coupons the bond has left to pay(23 years*2)

pmt is the semiannual coupon of the bond=$1000*5.3%*6/12=26.5

pv is the curren price=$1000*105%=$1050

fv is the face value of the bond

=rate(46,26.5,-1050,1000)=2.47%

2.47% is the semiannual yield

annual yield=2.47% *2=4.94%

7 0
3 years ago
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