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3 years ago

The present value interest factor for an annuity with an interest rate of 8 percent per year over 20 years is ____.

1 answer:

8 0

The present value factor of an annuity that will mature in 20 years at an interest rate of 8% is 9.8181474.

<h3>What is the present value interest factor?</h3>

It can be found by using the present value of an annuity formula of:

= Amount x ( 1 - ( 1 + rate) ^ - number of periods) / Rate

As there is no amount, solving gives:

= ( 1 - ( 1 + 8%) ⁻²⁰) / 8%

= 9.8181474

In conclusion, it is 9.8181474.

Find out more on present value of annuity at brainly.com/question/25792915.

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One item that appears on an insurance company's financial statements is a liability that represents an estimate of the claims re

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This liability is called the insurer's "loss reserve".

Loss reserve is a gauge of an insurer's liability from future cases. Loss reserves most often contain liquid resources, and they enable the insurer to cover claims made against strategies that it endorses. Assessing liabilities can be a difficult task. Insurers need to regulate loss reserve estimations as the situation change.

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3 years ago

In markets where customers are sensitive to price and where internal efficiencies lead to cost advantages allowing for acceptabl

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Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": Penetration.

Explanation:

Penetration Pricing means that an initially low price for a new product or service attracts customers away from the competitors. The new company hopes that even if prices rise to normal levels, customers will continue to use their products. Penetration Pricing will yield higher returns on sales and push rivals out of the market if implemented long enough.

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3 years ago

Two investment advisers are comparing performance. One averaged a 19% return and the other a 16% return. However, the beta of th

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Answer (A):

Need more data to select the better adviser

Explanation: 

Adviser A averaged 19% return on the investment which is more than that of Adviser B who averaged 16% return on investment. However, adviser A has a beta of 1.5 which is also greater than that of Adviser B who has a beta of 1. This means that adviser A made a more riskier investment and hence a higher average return on investment. We need more data to tell which adviser performed better in relation to each other.

Answer (B):

Investment Adviser B

Explanation:

$R_{f}$ = T-bill rate = 6%

$R_{m}$ = Market return = 14%

$R_{m} - R_{f}$ = Market risk premium = 14% - 6% = 8%

$ER_{a}$ = Average Return by Adviser A =19%

$\beta _{a}$ = Beta of Adviser A = 1.5

$ER_{b}$ = Average Return by Adviser B =16%

$\beta _{b}$ = Beta of Adviser B = 1

CAPM Equation is $ER_{i} = R_{f} +\beta (R_{m} - R_{f} ) +\alpha$

For Adviser A

$ER_{i}$ = 6 + 1.5 (14 - 6) = 18%

The expected average return for the investment is 18% which means that Adviser A over performed the market by 1 %

For Adviser B

$ER_{i}$ = 6 + 1 (14 - 6) = 14%

The expected average return for the investment is 14% which means that the Adviser B over performed the market by 2 %

Clearly, Adviser B performed better than Adviser A.

Answer (C):

Adviser B

Explanation:

In this part, the $R_{f} = 3 %$ and $R_{m} = 15%$

All else remains the same

We make similar calculation as in part B

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4 years ago

Each of these statements is true if you work forty-five hours in the same pay period:

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Answer:

You will have worked five hours overtime

Explanation:

In standard work hours in most companies/organizations, the work hours weekly is usually 40 hours.

So if on works for 45 hours in the same pay period, it means such a person has worked 5 additional hours which is overtime.

Thus, option C is correct.

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3 years ago

Barbara got a flat tire and does not have a spare. She needs her car for work, so she goes to a business that offers payday loan

yKpoI14uk [10]

Answer:

Ans. c) The annual percentage rate of the loan is approximately 913%

Explanation:

Hi, well, she borrowed $75 and paid $90 ($75 + $15 fee) in 8 days. So we need to use the following formula to check what 8 days percentage rate was applied to this loan.

$r=\frac{FinalValue}{InitialValue} -1$

That is:

$r=\frac{90}{75} -1=0.20$

So she pays 20% for 8 days, to know the annual rate (approx.) we need to do the following operation.

$r(Annual)=\frac{0.20}{8Days} *\frac{365Days}{1Year} =\frac{9.13}{1Year}$

That is 913% per year.

Best of luck.

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3 years ago

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