Answer:
48.30
Step-by-step explanation:
First determine the tip
42 *15%
42 *.15 =6.30
Add this to the amount of the tip
42 + 6.30 =48.30
The total amount is 48.30
SOLUTION
This is a binomial probability. For i, we will apply the Binomial probability formula
i. Exactly 2 are defective
Using the formula, we have

Note that I made the probability of being defective as the probability of success = p
and probability of none defective as probability of failure = q
Exactly 2 are defective becomes the binomial probability

Hence the answer is 0.1157
(ii) None is defective becomes

hence the answer is 0.4823
(iii) All are defective

(iv) At least one is defective
This is 1 - probability that none is defective

Hence the answer is 0.5177
Answer:
.15 percent
Step-by-step explanation:
I just divided 3 by 19 and set them equivalent to each other.
Answer:
113.04
Explanation:
So, the formula is C=pi x d
Once you substitute in the number given the equation is now .. C= pi x 36
36 x 3.14=113.04
Therefore, the circles circumference is 113.04
Here is an example:
Josh bought 7 apples for $21.
21/7 is 3, so one apple costs $3. This is the unit rate.
21/7 simplifies to 3/1, that’s another way to think about it. Simplify the fraction until the denominator is 1.
Hope this helps! Tell me if you have any questions!