The correct answer for the question that is being presented above is this one: E. One reason that Chinese peasants were ready to rebel is that the emperor had used them as forced labor to achieve his goals. <span>B. The Sui dynasty reunited China in the sixth and seventh centuries by combining existing laws into a single legal code. </span>
Answer:
$38, 288.718
Explanation:
The amount to be withdrawn at the end of each year, for 30 years
The amount of $500,000 represents the present value while yearly withdraws the annuities.
We use a revised formula for calculating annuities.
Applicable formula is
P = PV × r/( 1 − (1+r)−n
P = annual withdrawals
PV = $500,000
r = 6.5%
n 30
P = 500,000 x( 0.065/ ( 1- (1 + 0.065) -30)}
p = 500,000 x (0.065/ (1-1+.065)-30)
p= 500,000 x (0.065 / 1-0.1511860661)
P =500,000 x (0.065 /0.848814)
P= 500,000 x 0.076577436
Yearly withdrawals = $38, 288.718
True.
This is because managers are responsible for the overall performance of a branch and its personnel. Managers have people under their supervision and any problem that may arise in the course of a business day, they have to deal and solve in as little amount of time as possible.
Given:
<span>stockton company adjusted trial balance december 31
cash 7,530
accounts receivable 2,100
prepaid expenses 700
equipment 13,700
accumulated depreciation 1,100
accounts payable 1,900
notes payable 4,300
common stock 1,000
retained earnings 12,940
dividends 790
fees earned 9,250
wages expense 2,500
rent expense 1,960
utilities expense 775
depreciation expense 250
miscellaneous expense 185
To determine the total assets, we only have to consider the following:
</span>cash 7,530
accounts receivable 2,100
prepaid expenses 700
equipment 13,700
<span>accumulated depreciation <u> (1,100) </u>
</span>Total assets: 22,930 CHOICE D.
NET INCOME:
fees earned 9,250
<span>wages expense (2,500) </span>
<span>rent expense (1,960) </span>
<span>utilities expense (775) </span>
<span>depreciation expense (250) </span>
<span>miscellaneous expense <u> (185)</u>
</span><span>Net Income 3,580
LIABILITIES AND S.H.E
</span>accounts payable 1,900
<span>notes payable 4,300 </span>
<span>common stock 1,000 </span>
<span>retained earnings 12,940 </span>
<span>dividends (790)
</span>Net Income <u> 3,580</u>
TOTAL LIABILITIES & SHE 22,930
Answer:
In order to find the present value of the bond we have to calculate the present value of investment A and subtract is from 1529. We can find the present value of A by discounting all its cash flows.
As the first cash flow is received today and the last will be received 3 years form now there will be a total of 4 cash flows
1) 218.19 (Will not be discounted as we are receiving it today in the present)
2) 218.19/1.0987 (Discount by 1 year as cash will be received in 1 year)
3) 218.19/1.0987^2 (Discount by 2 years as cash will be received in 2 years)
4) 218.19/ 1.0987^3 (Discount by 3 years as cash will be received in 3 years)
= 218.19 + 198.58 + 180.74+ 164.51 = 762.02
PV of Bond = 1529-762.09= 766.91
Semi annual coupons mean 2 payments a year. Bond B matures in 23 years which means a total of 46 payments (23*2). N=46. A coupon rate of 6.4 percent means that the bond pays $64 (0.064*1000) each year. $64 divided by 2 is 32 which is the amount of each semi annual payment Arjen receives. Pv= 766.91 FV = 1000
In a financial calculator put
PV= -766.91
N= 46
FV=1000
PMT= 32
and compute I
I is 4.38 and we will multiply it by 2 because the payments are semi annual. So we will get an I of 8.76
YTM= 0.0876
Explanation:
