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Sunny_sXe [5.5K]
2 years ago
14

Write an equation in slope-intercept form that passes through (-6,-2) and had a y-intercept located at y=-5

Mathematics
1 answer:
valina [46]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

(-6, -2) is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

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To find 40% of 75 and calculate 2 of 5 . 75 . Does her calculation Correct value for 40% of 75
pickupchik [31]

Answer:

Yes, her calculation is correct. The value of 40% of 75 is 30.

Step-by-step explanation:

The value of 40% of 75 is

\frac{40}{100}\times 75=\frac{3000}{100}=30

The value of \frac{2}{5} of 75 is

\frac{2}{5}\times 75=2\times 15=30

From the above calculation it is noticed that the value of 40% of 75 and \frac{2}{5} of 75 are same, therefore the calculation is correct and the  value of 40% of 75 is 30.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
EXPAND it please and explain <br> (9r-s/7)(9r+s/7)
Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

2. 2

81r - s/49

Step-by-step explanation: I don’t know how to explain it but yeah

( I’m probably wrong so if I am I’m sorry)

4 0
3 years ago
Heather makes $6.50 per hour. Every three months, she is eligible for a 2% raise. How much will she make after 2 years if she ge
sammy [17]

Answer:

$7.62 per hour


Step-by-step explanation:

Since, Heather gets a raise every 3 months, in 2 years, she will get a raise 8 times (2years = 24 months, 24 divided by 3 is 8).

Now it becomes a compound growth problem. We can use the formula shown below to solve these type of problems.

F=P(1+r)^t

Where,

  • F is the future value (what we want to find)
  • P is the present rate ($6.5)
  • r is the rate of growth, in decimal (2% growth means 0.02)
  • t is the time frame, number of times compounding occurs (for our case we have figured it to be 8)

<u>Now plugging in all the info, we get the value of F:</u>

F=P(1+r)^t\\F=6.5(1+0.02)^8\\F=6.5(1.02)^8\\F=7.62


Thus, after 2 years, Heather's hourly rate will be $7.62


7 0
3 years ago
I’ll mark youyou brainlist I’ll mark youyou brainlist
ale4655 [162]
8r + 206 + 7r +79 = 360
15r + 285 = 360
15r = 75
r = 5

7(5) + 79
35 + 79

angle YMB is 114°
3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
HELP ME PLEASE!
shusha [124]

Answer:

Part A) The probability is closer to 0, because is less than 50%

Part B) The probability is closer to 1, because is greater than 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

The probability of an event is the ratio of the size of the event space to the size of the sample space.  

The size of the sample space is the total number of possible outcomes  

The event space is the number of outcomes in the event you are interested in.  

so  

Let

x------> size of the event space

y-----> size of the sample space  

so

P=\frac{x}{y}

Part A) Is the probability of hitting the black circle inside the target closer to 0 or 1?

In this problem we have

x------> is the area of the black circle

y------> is the total area of the square target

<em>Find the area of black circle</em>

r=3/2=1.5\ units    

x=(3.14)(1.5)^{2} =7.065\ units^{2}

<em>Find the total area of the square target</em>

y=9^{2}=81\ units^{2}

Find the probability

P=\frac{7.065}{81}=0.0872

Convert to percentage

0.0872*100=8.72\%

The probability is closer to 0, because is less than 50%

Part B) Is the probability of hitting the white portion of the target closer to 0 or 1?

In this problem we have

x------> is the area of the white portion of the target

y------> is the total area of the square target

<em>Find the area of the white portion</em>

The area is equal to the area of the square minus the area of the circle

x=81-7.065=73.935\ units^{2}

Find the probability

P=\frac{73.935}{81}=0.9128

Convert to percentage

0.9128*100=91.28\%

The probability is closer to 1, because is greater than 50%

4 0
3 years ago
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