Does 1\2 = 2\3 or would it 1\2 ≤ 2\3
2 answers:
You might be interested in
Answer:
A)
μ = 5
σ = 2.2
B)
P(0) = 0.0066
C)
P(x ≥ 4) = 0.74
Step-by-step explanation:
A) The expected value is going to be the same as the mean μ.
We can use the binomial probability distribution because there are a fixed number of trials (500), each trial is independent and there are only two possible outcomes (CPU failure or not) and the probability of failure has the fixed value 0.01.
For binomial distributions:
μ = np, where p is the probability (in this case of CPU failure) and n is the number of trials (500)
μ = (500)(0.01) = 5
σ = , where q = 1 - p
σ = = 2.2
B) We can use the binomial probability formula
× pˣ × qⁿ⁻ˣ
× 0.01⁰ × 0.99⁵⁰⁰
C) In this case wee need to use a binomial distribution calculator. Setting n as 500, π = 0.01 and finding the probability above 3.