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natima [27]
3 years ago
6

A quality control specialist at a pencil manufacturer pulls a random sample of 45 pencils from the assembly line. The pencils ha

ve a mean length of
17.9 cm. Given that the population standard deviation is 0.25 cm, find the P-value you would use to test the claim that the population mean of
pencils produced in that factory have a mean length equal to 18.0 cm.​
Mathematics
1 answer:
amm18123 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The P-value you would use to test the claim that the population mean of  pencils produced in that factory have a mean length equal to 18.0 cm is 0.00736.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a quality control specialist at a pencil manufacturer pulls a random sample of 45 pencils from the assembly line.

The pencils have a mean length of  17.9 cm. Given that the population standard deviation is 0.25 cm.

Let \mu = <u><em>population mean length of  pencils produced in that factory.</em></u>

So, Null Hypothesis, H_0 : \mu = 18.0 cm     {means that the population mean of  pencils produced in that factory have a mean length equal to 18.0 cm}

Alternate Hypothesis, H_A : \mu\neq 18.0 cm     {means that the population mean of  pencils produced in that factory have a mean length different from 18.0 cm}

The test statistics that will be used here is <u>One-sample z-test</u> statistics because we know about the population standard deviation;

                           T.S.  =  \frac{\bar X-\mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n} } }  ~ N(0,1)

where, \bar X = sample mean length of pencils = 17.9 cm

           \sigma = population standard deviation = 0.25 cm

           n = sample of pencils = 45

So, <u><em>the test statistics</em></u> =  \frac{17.9-18.0}{\frac{0.25}{\sqrt{45} } }  

                                    =  -2.68

The value of z-test statistics is -2.68.

<u>Now, the P-value of the test statistics is given by;</u>

         P-value = P(Z < -2.68) = 1 - P(Z \leq 2.68)

                      = 1- 0.99632 = 0.00368

For the two-tailed test, the P-value is calculated as = 2 \times 0.00368 = 0.00736.

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

f =​ {(-1, 4)​,(1, 9)​,(4, 0)​},

g = ​{(-1, -8)​,(2, -7)​,(4, 8)​,(5, -9)​}

So, Domain of f = {-1, 1, 4},

Domain of g = {-1, 2, 4, 5}

Since,

\frac{g}{f}(x) = \frac{g(x)}{f(x)}

Thus, domain of g/f = Domain of f ∩ Domain of g = {-1, 4}

If x = -1,

\frac{g}{f}(-1) = \frac{g(-1)}{f(-1)}=\frac{-8}{-4}=2

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\frac{g}{f}(4) = \frac{g(4)}{f(4)}=\frac{8}{0}=\infty (\text{ not possible})

Hence, the domain of g/f = {-1}

And, g/f = {(-1, 2)}

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