All categories

2 years ago

What is the mass of an object if it takes a net force of 32 N to accelerate

1 answer:

5 0

We will find the answer using the second law of motion i.e. Force is equal to the product of mass and acceleration.

$\sf \: F=ma$

Where,

F is force
M is mass
A is acceleration

In our case,

F = 32 N
A = 0.88m/s
M = ?

Let's solve for M ~

$\tt \: 32 = m \times 0.88$

$\tt \: 32 = 0.88m$

$\tt \: 0.88m = 32$

$\tt \: m = 36.36$

Thus, The mass of object is 36.36 grams...~

You might be interested in

A spinner and 4 cards are shown below:

yan [13]

Answer: 1 over 20

Step-by-step explanation: If the spinner has 5 parts to it at purple is one of those parts then the spinner has a 1/5 chance of it landing there.

If there are 4 cards and 1 of them are pink then there is a 1/4 chance of picking pink(if done randomly)

So if we mutiply 1/4 and 1/5, we get 1/20

That is how I arrived at my answer of 1 over 20

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Use the distributive property to solve the equation 28 - (3x + 4) = 2(x + 6) + 5

Shalnov [3]

1.) 28-3x-4= 2x+12+x
2.) 24-3x= 3x+12
3.)24-6x=12
4.)-6x=-12
5.)x=2

7 0

3 years ago

17.55 what is this rounded to nearest pound

vesna_86 [32]

Answer:18

Step-by-step explanation:

The 17.55 rounded to nearest pound is 18.

8 0

3 years ago

How is 0.136 repeated written as a fraction in simplest form

jolli1 [7]

Repeated fractions are written with 9's in the denominator.

0.136 = 136/1000
0.136 repeated = 136/999

3 0

3 years ago

A manufacturing firm just received a shipment of 20 assembly parts, of slightly varied sizes, from a vendor. The manager knows t

Marat540 [252]

Answer:

a. 0.75

b. 0.5526

c. 0.1974

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability is typically expressed as a fraction where the numerator is the number of desired outcomes and the denominator is the total number of outcomes. In this case the suitable parts is the desired outcome and the total shipment is the total parts:

$\frac{suitable}{total}=\frac{15}{20}=\frac{3}{4}=0.75$

The probability the both the first and second part are suitable:

$\frac{15}{20}*\frac{14}{19}=\frac{210}{380}=0.5526$

Since the probability of getting a suitable part the first time is 15/20, then there is one less suitable part and one less part overall to choose on the second time, or 14/19.

Lastly, the probability of choosing a suitable part the first time is again 15/20, but the second part not being suitable would be 5/19:

4 0

3 years ago