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tangare [24]
2 years ago
10

The price of a computer was marked up by 50% and then marked down by 50%.

Mathematics
2 answers:
natita [175]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

James is wrong because if you increase something's price by 50%, and decrease it by 50% of the new price, it will be lower than the original price.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's say that the computer's price is around $1,000.

Since we have to mark it up by 50%, we have to turn this into a decimal and multiply that decimal by the original price. Then add the product to the original price

0.5 x 1,000 = 500

500 + 1,000 = 1,500

The marked up price of the computer is $1,500, then reduce it by 50%, do the same process as the first step but don't add it to the original price this time.

0.5 x 1,500 = 750

The computer's final price is $750

dalvyx [7]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

percent change = 25% (drop)

Step-by-step explanation:

James reasoning is incorrect

Let the original price of the computer = $1000

If the computer was marked up by 50% then 1000 x 1.5 = $1500

If the computer was then marked down by 50% then 1500 x 0.5 = $750

Percent change = [ (difference between final value and initial value) ÷ initial value] x 100

= [ (1000 - 750) ÷ 1000 ] x 100

= 25% (drop)

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Answer:

  6x^2 +x -12

Step-by-step explanation:

Substitute for A and B and collect terms.

  2B +3A

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Step-by-step explanation:

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----------------     -      ----------------     =     ------------------   =  -------------------
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A group consists of 6 men and 5 women. Five people are selected to attend a conference. In how many ways can 5 people be selecte
cluponka [151]

Answer:

462

6

1.2%

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the questions are combinations, we must apply the combination formula, which is as follows:

n C r = (n!) / (r! (n-r)!)

Because there are 6 men and 5 women, there are a total of 11 people.

Thus:

n = 11

In the first question in how many ways can 5 people be selected from this group of 11, r = 5.

Replacing in the formula:

11 C 5 = (11!) / (5! * (11-5)!)

11 C 5 = (11!) / (5! * 6!)

11 C 5 = 462

In the second question, in how many ways can 5 men be selected from the 6 men, here n = 6 and r = 5, replacing we are left with:

6 C 5 = (6!) / (5! * (6-5)!)

6 C 5 = (6!) / (5! * 1!)

6 C 5 = 6

In the last question of what is the probability that the selected group is all men, we have that it is the combination of the two previous questions. Since the total would be part A it would be the total of the combinations of choosing 5 of 11 people and part B of the 6 men that there are the combinations of choosing 5.

Divide the two values ​​from parts A and B to get ...

(result from part B) / (result from part A) = (# of ways to pick 5 men) / (# of ways to pick 5 people)

(result from part B) / (result from part A) = 6/462

(result from part B) / (result from part A) = 0.012

In other words, the probability is 1.2%

7 0
3 years ago
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