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tresset_1 [31]
2 years ago
9

Is 5 km bigger or 5,000 meters

Mathematics
2 answers:
Alexxandr [17]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

1 km = 1000 meters

5 km = 5*1000 = 5000 meters

5 km and 5000 meters both measure the same length.

ruslelena [56]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

5000

Step-by-step explanation:

They are not bigger nor less because they are both the same amount

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Set up the equation to find the AREA of the SMALL rectangle with a length of (x) and width (x+7)
Igoryamba

<u>Answer:</u>

<h3>( x ) x ( x + 7 ) </h3>

<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>

To find the area of a rectangle, we have to multiply the length with the width.

In the question, the given length is 'x' and the width given is 'x +7'

So, the area would be

( x ) x ( x + 7 )

The area = x^{2} + 7x

So, the equation to find the area of such a rectangle would be:-

( x ) x ( x + 7 )

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2 years ago
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Answer:

1.) Gallon

2.) Pound

3.) Foot

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 0
3 years ago
In the diagram shown of circle A, segments UV and UT are congruent. If
grandymaker [24]

Answer:

 35°

Step-by-step explanation:

We assume that points S, T, U, V all lie on the circle.

Inscribed angle TUV intercepts long arc VST and short arc VUT. The long arc has measure 220°, so the measure of the short arc is 360° -220° = 140°.

Since chords UV and UT are the same length, point U bisects arc VUT. That means the measure of arc VU is 140°/2 = 70°.

Inscribed angle VSU intercepts arc VU, so has half the measure of the arc:

 ∠VSU = 70°/2

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Read more on Brainly.com - brainly.com/question/15559971#readmore

8 0
2 years ago
What is the inverse of f(x)=e^x
enot [183]

Answer:

f^{-1}(x)=\ln{x}

Step-by-step explanation:

An <em>inverse</em> function is any function that "undoes" another function. If we think of the function f as some kind of machine that takes in a number x as input and produces a number f(x) as an output, when we give inverse function f^{-1} the number f(x) as in input, we get x, our original input, as the output f^{-1}(x)

We need a function that undoes f(x)=e^x, and the natural choice for undoing an exponent is with a logarithm. Here, our base is e, so we'll choose \log_e{x}=\ln{x} as our inverse function. Let's see how that works:

f^{-1}(f(x))=\ln{e^x}

\ln{e^x} is the power we have to raise e to to get e^x, which is x, so

f^{-1}(f(x))=\ln{e^x}=x

And we have our function.

8 0
3 years ago
The Pythagorean theorem is true for all similar triangles.<br> A. True<br> B. False
Afina-wow [57]
False. It only relates to the sides of a right triangle in a simple way, so that if the lengths of any two sides are known, the length of the third side can be found.
5 0
3 years ago
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