yes because half of 8 is 4 as well as half of 2 is 1
Answer:
-1.7
Step-by-step explanation:
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Anyway, 60,000 is one standard deviation above the mean. By the 68-95-99.7 rule 68% of the probability is between -1 and +1 standard deviations, so 34% between 0 and 1 sigma so 50%-34%=16% above one sigma.
Answer: 16%
Answer:
Yes
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
A. AAS
Step-by-step explanation: