Answer:
Letter A is correct. <u>Cause-oriented.</u>
Explanation:
A cause-oriented approach to problem solving is a method characterized by focusing on the history of the problem and then thereafter finding the root cause that originated it.
It is a very effective method when used to find solutions to various organizational problems that are apparently unsolved.
Answer:
(C) Decrease No effect
Explanation:
at purchase:
30,000 shares x 16 dollars each:
Treasury stock 480,000 debit
Cash 480,000 credit
--purchase of own share--
Then we will decrease retained earnings for the difference in the cash proceed on the sale and our treasury stock.
30,000 x 12 dollars = 360,000 cash proceeds
treasury stock 480,000
decrease in RE 120,000
cash 360,000 debit
retained earnings 120,000 debit
Treasury Stock 480,000 credit
Answer: c. closing the sale is the final—and most satisfying—part of the process.
Explanation:
Closing the sale is NOT the final part of the process but rather the FOLLOW-UP.
And like option e in the question shows, following up can lead to more sales for the representative because following up can guage customer satisfaction and if the customer is satisfied, they could become loyal and recurrent customers.
Answer:
The correct answer to the following question is $36,000.
Explanation:
Given information -
Units anticipated to be produced - 300,000 units
Variable cost - $150,000
Fixed cost - $600,000
Beginning inventory - 5000 units
Ending inventory - 7000 units
Income under absorption costing - $40,000
Now under the absorption costing, rate of fixed overhead cost per unit -
Fixed cost / Number of units produced
= $600,000 / 300,000
= $2
In April ( under absorption costing ), the amount of fixed manufacturing overhead cost that was still embedded in ending inventory but were not expense -
Fixed overhead rate per unit x number of units produced but not sold
= $2 x 2000 ( 7000 units - 5000 units )
= $4000
So when we calculate the operating cost under variable costing this fixed overhead cost wold be subtracted from total income -
$40,000 - $4000
= $36,000 .
Answer:
B. The value of a perpetuity is equal to the sum of the present value of its expected future cash flows.
C. The current value of a perpetuity is based more on the discounted value of its nearer (in time) cash flows and less by the discounted value of its more distant (in the future) cash flows.
Explanation:
A Perpetuity is a financial instrument that pays the holder forever or in perpetuity. For example, a bank paying you $800 per year for ever because you invested $40,000.
There are certain characteristics
Option B
The Perpetuity like most financial Securities has its value based on the underlying cashflows that it can accumulate. This means that it's value is based on the present value of it's future cashflow so the other the cash payments, the higher the present value.
Option C.
As the discounted cashflows in the nearer future will be discounted less by the discount rate as opposed to the cash flows further in future, the cashflows nearer to the present in time will contribute more to the Perpetuity than the cashflows further in time.
For example using that first example, $800 per year at a rate of 5% will be discounted to $762 in the first year but in year 10 will be discounted to $491.
