B
Mark brainliest please
Hope this helps
With some simplification,
cos⁻¹(x) - 5 cos⁻¹(x) - π/3 = 2π/3
becomes
-4 cos⁻¹(x) = π
or
cos⁻¹(x) = -π/4
However, the inverse cosine function has a range of 0 ≤ cos⁻¹(x) ≤ π, so there are no solutions to this equation.
Answer:
True
Step-by-step explanation:
Just a guess
Answer:
the answer is 8
Step-by-step explanation:
8x6=48
