one way is to solve for the invers of the first function
remembe, to solve, replace f(x) or g(x) with y, switch x and y, solve for y and replace it with f⁻¹(x)
A.
f(x)=x/2+8
y=x/2+8
x=y/2+8
x-8=y/2
2x-16=y
f⁻¹(x)=2x-16
nope, not A
B.
f(x)=3x³+16
y=3x³+16
x=3y³+16
x-16=3y³
(x-16)/3=y³
∛((x-16)/3)=y
f⁻¹(x)=∛((x-16)/3)
nope, not the same
not B
C.
f(x)=18/x-9
y=18/x-9
x=18/y-9
x+9=18/y
y(x+9)=18
y=18/(x+9)
f⁻¹(x)=18/(x+9)
correct, the answer is C
answer is C
48 because,
<span>For example
To find x percent of y you can just do </span>
<span>y times x/100 </span>
<span>So in this case </span>
<span>100 times 20/100 </span>
<span>which comes to 20 </span>
<span>so 20% of 100 is 20. </span>
Answer:
The correct answer is 27
Step-by-step explanation:
- 5a - b
- 5(-6) - 3
30 - 3
= 27
It will be irrational. The sum of any irrational and rational number will ALWAYS result in a irrational answer. Khan Academy has a video on this if you want to watch it.
Answer:
y= -4/3x +8
Step-by-step explanation:
well first you got to simply for equation
4x +3y = 24
so you subtract 4x to both sides and that gives you : 3y= -4y +24
then you divide everything by 3
and that leaves you with : y= -4/3x +8
and the graph just put a dot on 8 on the y axis then go down -4 and left 3
your welcome!!!!!!!!1
