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1 year ago

11

If you are holding a premium bond, you must expect a _______ each year until maturity. If you are holding a discount bond, you m

ust expect a

1 answer:

prisoha [69]1 year ago

5 0

Answer:

i dont know lol hahhahahhah

Explanation:

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It is important to identify and use only incremental cash flows in capital investment decisions:A) because they are the simplest

abruzzese [7]

Answer:

C) because ultimately it is the change in a firm's overall future cash flows that matter.

Explanation:

Under capital budgeting decisions, decisions are made with respect to addressing the questions like what is the benefit of selecting the project and investing on it.

If the answer to above question is raised income, then the project is selected. Accordingly the raised income in cash terms will be measured by increase in cash flows, that is incremental cash flows.

In simplest terms additional cash flows.

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3 years ago

Imagine that both the skycar and jet powered wing become sold commercially. What hospitality and tourism businesses might develo

Ede4ka [16]

Explanation:

Companies could improve and implement differentiated services for customers.

What could probably happen is that tour companies offer a personalized service, faster and cheaper with the possibility of purchasing a skycar and jet, as hotel guests usually make a tour itinerary that requires high mobility costs, therefore offering this differentiated and cheaper service directly at the establishment would mean a focused differentiation strategy that would add several benefits, such as increased profitability and customer loyalty.

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2 years ago

Recording sales, returns, and discounts taken LO P2 Prepare journal entries to record each of the following sales transactions o

OLEGan [10]

Answer:

Apr. 1

J1

Trade Receivable $6,600 (debit)

Sales Revenue $6,600 (credit)

J2

Cost of Sales $3,960 (debit)

Merchandise $3,960 (credit)

Apr. 4

J1

Sales Revenue $740 (debit)

Trade Receivable $740 (credit)

J2

Merchandise $444 (debit)

Cost of Sales $444 (credit)

Apr. 8

J1

Trade Receivable $2,800 (debit)

Sales Revenue $2,800 (credit)

J2

Cost of Sales $1,960 (debit)

Merchandise $1,960 (credit)

Apr. 11

Cash $5,860 (debit)

Trade Receivable (credit)

Explanation:

Perpetual method of inventory keeps a record of cost of inventory after every sale.

Thus, for every sale transaction remember to recognize the Sales Revenue and the Cost of Sales that follow the sale.

For any returns, De-recognize the Sales Revenue - to the extend of the <em>credit granted</em> and also de-recognize the Cost of Sales to the extend of the <em>value of Inventory returned</em>.

4 0

3 years ago

Jack corp. Has a profit margin of 5.1 percent, total asset turnover of 2.3, and roe of 19.64 percent. What is this firm's debt-e

anygoal [31]

Answer: Jack Corp's D/E ratio is 0.67.

We follow these steps to arrive at the answer:

We begin with the DuPont Identity for Return on Equity (RoE)

$RoE = Net Profit Margin * Asset turnover Ratio * Equity Multiplier$

Substituting the values from the question in the DuPont identity we get,

$0.1964 = 0.051 * 2.3 * Equity Multiplier$

$Equity Multiplier = \frac{0.1964}{0.051*2.3}$

$Equity Multiplier = 1.674339301
$

$Equity Multiplier = \frac{Total Assets }{Equity}$

So,

$\frac{1}{Equity multiplier} =\frac{Equity}{Total Assets}$

Substituting the value of equity multiplier in the formula above we get,

$\frac{Equity}{Total Assets} = 0.597250509$

Now,

$\frac{Equity}{Total Assets} + \frac{Debt}{Total Assets} =1$

So,

$\frac{Debt }{Total Assets} = 1 - \frac{Equity}{Total Assets}$

$\frac{Debt }{Total Assets} = 1 - 0.597250509
$

$\frac{Debt }{Total Assets} = 0.402749491
$

Now that we have the proportions of debt and equity to total assets, we can find the Debt Equity (D/E) ratio as follows:

$\frac{D}{E} = \frac{\frac{Debt}{Total Assets}}{\frac{Equity}{Total Assets}}$

Substituting the values we get,

$\frac{D}{E} = \frac{0.402749491
}{0.597250509
}$

$\frac{D}{E} = 0.674339301
$

3 0

3 years ago

In December, Davis Company had the following cost flows: Molding Department Grinding Department Finishing Department Direct mate

slava [35]

Answer:

Required 1 ; Journals

Work In Process : Grinding Department $ 128,000 (debit)

Work In Process : Molding Department $ 128,000 (credit)

<em>Being transfer of costs from Molding to Grinding Department</em>

<em />

Work In Process : Molding Department $ 128,000 (debit)

Work In Process : Grinding Department $ 128,000 (credit)

<em>Being transfer of costs from Grinding to Molding Department</em>

<em />

Finished Goods Account $40,000 (debit)

Work In Process : Finishing Department $40,000 (credit)

<em>Being transfer of costs from Finishing department to finished goods account</em>

Required 2 : Difference

<u>Job Order Costing </u>

Each production is unique and there may be no transfers to and from other departments. The is no inventory from previous processes as this is unique to the job order.

<u>Process Costing (Currently in use)</u>

There are transfers from and to other departments. Production is in sequence. For each departments we may also have inventories

Explanation:

<u>Finishing Department Costs Calculation</u>

Direct materials $17,200

Direct labor $11,600

Applied overhead $11,200

Total $40,000

Difference :

You should be able to see that the Journal entries above depicts a process costing system. Now provide reasons why this system differs from the job-order cost system. See the reasons above.

<em />

8 0

3 years ago