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In-s [12.5K]
2 years ago
11

PLEASE HELP ME WITH THIS KHAN ASAP ITS NOT THAT HARD IM JUST TIRED

Mathematics
2 answers:
yuradex [85]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The functions have the same y-intercept

Step-by-step explanation:

y-intercept is when r = 0

<u>Function 1</u>:

p = -\dfrac32(0)-5=-5

⇒ y-intercept is at -5

<u>Function 2</u>:

From inspection of table, when r = 0, p = -5

⇒ y-intercept is at -5

Therefore, the functions have the same y-intercept

Naya [18.7K]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:c

Step-by-step explanation: function 2 y-intecept is -5(when r=0), fuction 1 y-intecept:

p=-3/2*r-5  (r=0 because we looking for y-intecept)

p=0-5=-5

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Look at the image below where I labeled the sides

To solve this you must use Pythagorean theorem:

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3 years ago
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Step-by-step explanation:

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Theorem 8.3: If two angles are complementary to the same angle, then these two angles are congruent.

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