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2 years ago

Which of the following is a coefficient in the expression 822 + 6?

Mathematics

1 answer:

ioda2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

There are no coefficients.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Which best describes the transformation that occurs from the graph of f(x) = x2 to g(x) = (x – 2)2 + 3?

Andrei [34K]

Answer:

A. right 2, up 3

Step-by-step explanation:

We have that,

The function $f(x) = x^2$ is transformed to $g(x) =(x- 2)^2+3$ .

We see that,

The function f(x) is translated 2 units to the right and 3 units upwards to obtain the function g(x).

So, the correct transformation is 'right 2, up 3'.

Hence, option A is correct.

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Given that sin theta = 1/4, 0

GaryK [48]

Answer: cos(Θ) = (√15) / 4

Explanation:

The question states:

1) sin(Θ) = 1/4

2) 0 < Θ < π / 2

3) find cos(Θ)

This is how you solve it.

1) Use the fundamental identity (in this part I use α instead of Θ, just for facility of wirting the symbols, but they mean the same for the case).

$(cos \alpha )^2 + (sin \alpha )^2 =1$

2) From which you can find:

$(cos \alpha )^2 = 1 - (sin \alpha )^2$

3) Replace sin(α) with 1/4

=> $(cos \alpha )^2 = 1 - (1/4)^2 = 1 - 1/16 = 15/16$

=> $cos \alpha =+/- \sqrt{15/16} = +/- (\sqrt{15} )/4$

4) Given that the angle is in the first quadrant, you know that cosine is positive and the final answer is:

cos(Θ) = $\sqrt{15} /4$ .

And that is the answer.

6 0

3 years ago

Pls help! need answer ASAP!!

yuradex [85]

Answer:

c because if you subtract

7 0

3 years ago

There are 2.54cm in an inch, 12 inches in a foot, and 5,280 feet in a mile.which expression gives the number of centimeters in a

geniusboy [140]

Answer:

(2.54×12) ×5280

Step-by-step explanation:

Since there are 2.54cm in an inch, multiply 2.54 by 12 to find out how many cm there are in a foot. Then you multiply that by 5280

8 0

3 years ago

In the wheel of woohoo game I'm taking a chance on a spinner with 20 outcomes if it lands on an even number I'll win a prize How

Aloiza [94]

Answer: The chance here to win is 50%.

Step-by-step explanation: You are taking a chance on a spinner with 20 outcomes. So, we will be considering natural numbers from 1 to 20.

And also, you will a prize if you land on an even number, so we will calculate the probability of getting an even number.

From 1 to 20, there are 10 odd numbers and 10 even numbers out of total 20 numbers.

Let us define the following events -

A = event of getting an even number

and

B = event of getting an odd number.

So, n(A) = 10 and n(B) = 10.

So, the probability of getting an even number is given by

$p(A)=\dfrac{n(A)}{n(A)+n(B)}=\dfrac{10}{10+10}=\dfrac{10}{20}=0.5=50\%.$

Thus, the required chance of winning a prize is 50%.

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers