"1 indicating a coupon and all other outcomes indicating no coupon"
Probability is (number of successful outcomes) / (number of possible outcomes)
Theoretical Probability of rolling a 1: 1/8
Experimental Probability of using coupons: 4/48 = 1/12
So, the experimental probability of a customer using a coupon (that is, 1/12) is smaller than the theoretical probability of rolling a 1 (that is, 1/8).
Answer:The ratio of net income in the first 6 months, to the last six months is $76,500 / $100,000. This simplifies intuitively as follows:
76500/100000
Dividing by 100: 765/1000
Dividing by 5: 153/200
The denominator 200 is only divisible by the prime numbers 2 and 5, and since the numerator 153 is not divisible by either 2 or 5, this means that this is in simplest form, and the final answer is 153/200.
Step-by-step explanation:i did the research for you this isnt my own answer therefore don't give me the credit. but hope this helped you tho :D
2 X { 6 + [ 12 divided ( 3 + 1 ) ] } - 1
3 + 1 = 4
12 divided by 4 is 3
2 X { 6 + [ 3 ] } - 1
6 + 3 = 9
2 X { 9 } - 1
9 X 2 = 18
18 - 1 = 17!
17 is the answer
I used PEMDAS
P - Parenthesis
E - Exponents
M - Multiplication
D - Division
A - Addition
S - Subtraction
[in order that your supposed to do]
X= 7/93 or roughly 0.07526...
Answer:
1/3
Step-by-step explanation:
reduce 2/6 by dividing by 2
