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Pepsi [2]
2 years ago
15

F(x) = 3x + 6. Find the inverse of f(x).

Mathematics
1 answer:
Levart [38]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

\tt C) \:\tt f^{-1}(x)=\cfrac{x-6}{3}

Step-by-step explanation:

We're given,

\tt f(x) = 3x + 6

~

\tt y=3x+6

\tt x=3y+6

\tt x-6=3y

\tt y=\cfrac{x-6}{3}

\tt f^{-1}(x)=\cfrac{x-6}{3}

~

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Gustav needed to bake at least 252 cookies for the luncheon. He baked 8 batches of peanut butter cookies with 12 cookies in each
spin [16.1K]

Answer:

He made 10.4 batches of chocalate chip cookies.

He made 156 chocalate chip cookies and 96 peanut butter cookies.

Step-by-step explanation:

Sense there's a total of 252 cookies you would subtract the 96 cookies from 252 to get 156 then divide it by 15 to get 10.4 which is how much batches he made of chocalate chip cookies.

Tasty!    

6 0
3 years ago
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A car starts from rest and acquires a velocity of 72 km/h in 5s. Find the distance travelled by car assume motion of car is unif
Damm [24]

Answer:

Converting velocity into m/s

72x5/18=20 m/s²

Distance = Velocity *Time

20*5=100m

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it's helpful

3 0
3 years ago
Factorise fully to the following 6x+4
Fantom [35]

Answer:

so

6x+4=

6x=-4

x=-4/6

x=-2/3

4 0
2 years ago
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A survey reports that 67% of college students prefer to drink more coffee during the exams week. If we randomly select 80 colleg
Akimi4 [234]

Answer:

The probability that at most 50 say that they drink coffee during exam week is 0.166.

Step-by-step explanation:

The random variable <em>X</em> can be defined as the number of college students who prefer to drink more coffee during the exams week.

The probability of the random variable <em>X</em> is <em>p</em> = 0.67.

A random sample of <em>n</em> = 80 college students are selected.

The response of every students is independent of the others.

The random variable <em>X</em> follows a Binomial distribution with parameters <em>n</em> = 80 and <em>p</em> = 0.67.

But the sample selected is too large and the probability of success is close to 0.50.

So a Normal approximation to binomial can be applied to approximate the distribution of X if the following conditions are satisfied:

  1. np ≥ 10
  2. n(1 - p) ≥ 10

Check the conditions as follows:

np=80\times 0.67=53.6>10\\n(1-p)=80\times (1-0.67)=26.4>10

Thus, a Normal approximation to binomial can be applied.

X\sim N(np, np(1-p))

The mean of the distribution of <em>X</em> is:

\mu=np=80\times 0.67=53.6

The standard deviation of the distribution of <em>X</em> is:

\sigma=\sqrt{np(1-p)}=\sqrt{80\times 0.67\times (1-0.67)}=4.206

A Normal distribution is a continuous distribution. So, the probability at a point cannot be computed for the Normal distribution. To compute the probability at a point we need to apply the continuity correction.

Compute the probability that at most 50 say that they drink coffee during exam week as follows:

Apply continuity correction:

P(X\leq 50)=P(X

                 =P(X

*Use a <em>z</em>-table for the probability.

Thus, the probability that at most 50 say that they drink coffee during exam week is 0.166.

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3 years ago
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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Functoin B, A, C

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