Answer:
The answer would be A. 1 1/5
48/40 = 1 8/40
1 8/40 Simplify to 1 1/5
V=4/3pi(r^3)
V=4/3pi(9^3)
V=3,054 inches^3
Hope this helps!!!!!!!!!
Step-by-step explanation:
from the graph attached below:
domain of graph is the value of x for which the given function profit function p(x) is defined.
(a) the domain represents the number of years for which the outlet will earn a profit.
range of profit function defines the lowest to highest value of profit earned.
(b) the range of this function is (0 , 160 ). for this function, the range represents the outlet's profit earned.
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Answer:
531.25
Step-by-step explanation:
1)
Y = 2% x 25,000
2) Converting percent to decimal:
p = 2%/100 = 0.02
Y = 0.02 x 25,000
Y = 500
3)
25,000+500=25,500
4)
25,500/48=531.25
If it’s in years, it will take 4 years to reach 600 dollars if you don’t add anymore into your bank account.
Answer:
no solution
Step-by-step explanation:
n -8 = 6+n
Subtract n from each side
n-n -8 = 6+n-n
-8 = 6
This is never true so there is no solution
The probability that the person pulls 1 blue M&M given that one is only allowed to pull 5 random M&M's per day will be 0.6450.
<h3>How to calculate probability?</h3>
From the information given, there are 1,023 M&M's in a bag and out of 1,023 M&M's, 132 M&M's are blue.
Therefore, the probability of getting a blue M&M will be:
= 132/1023
= 0.1290
Therefore, since the person is given the chance to pull 5 random M&M's per day, the probability will be:
= 0.1290 × 5
= 0.6450
Learn more about probability on:
brainly.com/question/24756209
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