By applying the formulas of present and future values of annuity we can solve this problem. In this mortgage problem, first we have to find loan amount after the down payment. It is 699,000 - 699,000 * 0.2 = 559,200$. We have to set it as PV (Present Value) of annuity. Using the PV formula ![PV = A \frac{[1- \frac{1}{(1+r)^{N}}]}{r}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20PV%20%3D%20A%20%5Cfrac%7B%5B1-%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B%281%2Br%29%5E%7BN%7D%7D%5D%7D%7Br%7D%20)
, we first find A, which is an annual payment. Exact calculation with mortgage calculator gives us A = 33,866.56$. After finding it, plugging this number into FV (Future Value) formula ![FV = A\frac{[(1+r)^{N}-1]}{r}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20FV%20%3D%20A%5Cfrac%7B%5B%281%2Br%29%5E%7BN%7D-1%5D%7D%7Br%7D%20%20%20)
, we find the value of the future value and it is 1,185,329.66$. And the total financial charge is 1,185,329.66 - 559,200 = 626,129.66$
<span>f(x)=3[x-2]
So, f(5.9) = ?
f(5.9) = 3(5.9 - 2)
=3(3.9)
=11.7 = 12
Thus, the answer is 12.
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Answer and step-by-step explanation:
To write it as percent, multiply it with 100, we get:
0.01 * 100 = 1%
Nearest tenth of a percent would be 10%, 20%, 30%, etc.
So as we can see 1% is nearest to 10% so we round it up to 10%
Hope this helped :3
Answer: i'd rather stay single. none of yall loyal like you say. i only chase the bag.
Step-by-step explanation:
