Answer: 2 steps
Explanation: While calculating impairment of goodwill following steps should be taken :-
1.In the first step the fair value of the goodwill is compared with its carrying value.
2. In the second step, if the fair value comes to be lower than the carrying value, then it is concluded that there is an impairment and then it is computed accordingly.
in a business auto policy Comprehensive and Specified Cause of Loss physical damage coverage, which 2 coverages will not be written together for the same vehicle.
An organization's usage of cars, trucks, vans, and other vehicles while conducting business is covered by a business automotive insurance (BAP). Vehicles hired by the firm, owned by the employee, or leased by the company and used for business reasons may all be covered.
A legal document used in commercial auto insurance contracts is a business auto coverage form. It details the automobiles and dangers protected under the contract. Broadening endorsements are available for purchase by policyholders who need higher levels of coverage in order to further cut their risk.
Learn more about business auto policy here
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<span>The first step is to multiply the present value by the interest rate. Since the present value is $1.6 million and the interest rate is 10%, this yields. $160,000. This product is then divided by 1 - (1 + the rate)^-term. So it is divided by 1 - (1.1)^-15. That is, the annual payment = $160,000/[1 - 1.1^-15] = $160,000/.760607951= $210,358.04</span>
Answer:
C)
Explanation:
Based on the scenario being described within the question it can be said that the exception in these answers would be selling the finished clocks to customers. This is because this is a process that is done AFTER all the manufacturing processes have been done and the final output has been created. The question is asking about the processes BEFORE the final output.
Answer:
The optimal hedge is 0.642 and it means that the size of the future positions should be 64.2% of the exposure of the company in a 3 month-hedge.
Explanation:
optimal hedge ratio
= coefficient of correlation*(standard deviation of quarterly changes in the prices of a commodity/standard deviation of quarterly changes in a futures price on the commodity)
= 0..8*(0.65/0.81)
= 0.642
Therefore, The optimal hedge is 0.642 and it means that the size of the future positions should be 64.2% of the exposure of the company in a 3 month-hedge.
