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Kaylis [27]
2 years ago
5

PLEASE ANSWER SOON Identify the correct area formula and area for this triangle

Mathematics
2 answers:
Ket [755]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

first 6x14=84 then multiply it by 1 half to get 42 units

Solnce55 [7]2 years ago
3 0

Answer: d

Step-by-step explanation: formula is 1/2bh 14 times 6 is 84 divided by 2 is 42

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Answer:

;;6

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
What ratio would you use to convert 366 minutes to hours
belka [17]
The answer is366:60
3 0
3 years ago
7.4 Practice
pickupchik [31]

The simulation of the medicine and the bowler hat are illustrations of probability

  • The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
  • The probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
  • The probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two</h3>

From the question,

  • Numbers 1 to 7 represents the medicine being effective
  • 0, 8 and 9 represents the medicine not being effective

From the simulation, 23 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on at least two

So, the probability is:

p = 23/30

p = 0.767

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on none</h3>

From the simulation, 0 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on none

So, the probability is:

p = 0/30

p = 0

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0

<h3>The probability a bowler hits a headpin</h3>

The probability of hitting a headpin is:

p = 90%

The probability a bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is:

P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n - x)

So, we have:

P(4) = 5C4 * (90%)^4 * (1 - 90%)^1

P(4) = 0.3281

Hence, the probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

Read more about probabilities at:

brainly.com/question/25870256

8 0
2 years ago
If you get $2,000 for graduation gifts and invest it in an account that earns 1.5% interest
Eduardwww [97]

Answer:

It is VERY important to use the attached formula.

Years = ln (Total / Principal) / rate

Years = ln (6,000 / 2,000) / rate

Years = ln (3) / rate

Years = 1.0986122887 / .015

Years = 73.24 years

This takes a LONG time because the interest rate is extremely low.

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Use the diagram to solve. What is 135% of 280?
Darina [25.2K]
378% is the correct answer. Divide 280 by 100 to find 1 percent. Then multiply by 135 to find 135%
4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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