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Andrew [12]
2 years ago
6

The sum of two consecutive odd integers is 96. what is the product of these integers?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Korolek [52]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

2303

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the smaller of the two odd integers be x.

Then the next odd integer is x + 2.

Since the sum of these 2 integers is 96, we may write x + (x + 2) = 96

Now solving for x we obtain:

2x = 94

x = 47

To find the next value we can subtract 47 from 96, which is 49.

Hence, the required two integers are 47 and 49. Multiplying them, we get a product of 2303.

hope this helps!

liubo4ka [24]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

47 and 49

Step-by-step explanation:

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polet [3.4K]

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

1 / ((n + 1) + 2)³ ≤ 0.001

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6 0
3 years ago
Use separation of variables to solve dy dx − tan x = y2 tan x with y(0) = √3. Find the value of c in radians, not degrees
a_sh-v [17]

Answer:

y(x)=tan(-log(cos(x))+\frac{\pi }{3} )

Step-by-step explanation:

Rewrite the equation as:

\frac{dy(x)}{dx}-tan(x)=y(x)^{2} *tan(x)

Isolating \frac{dy}{dx}

\frac{dy}{dx} =tan(x)+tan(x)*y^{2}

Factor:

\frac{dy}{dx} =tan(x)*(1+y^{2} )

Dividing both sides by (1+y^{2} ) and multiplying them by dx

\frac{dy}{1+y^{2} } =tan(x)dx

Integrate both sides:

\int\ \frac{dy}{1+y^{2} } = \int\ tan(x)  dx

Evaluate the integrals:

arctan(y)=-log(cos(x))+C_1

Solving for y:

y(x)=tan(-log(cos(x))+C_1)

Evaluating the initial condition:

y(0)=\sqrt{3} =tan(-log(cos(0))+C_1)=tan(-log(1)+C_1)=tan(0+C_1)

\sqrt{3} =tan(C_1)\\arctan(\sqrt{3} )=C_1\\60=C_1

Converting 60 degrees to radians:

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Replacing C_1 in the diferential equation solution:

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3 0
3 years ago
Plz help me I’m so confused 23 points plz explain it to me in sooo stuck
anzhelika [568]

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6. D

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Step-by-step explanation:

Nancy takes a test that has two sections: essay and true/false. She scores 56 points on the essay. Each true/false question is 4 points. So x number of true/false is worth 4 points each or 4x.

Together her score will be 56 + 4x.

She wants to score more than 80 or > 80.

So her test can be represented as the inequality 56 + 4x > 80.

This is solved using inverse operations.

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This should be graphed as an open circle at 6 on the umber line pointing and shaded to the the right for numbers greater than 6.

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Sparkle wands:  NO

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The fairy wands have the same price per wand as glitter wands.

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