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2 years ago

Along with refining craft skills another way to increase the odds for career advancement is to

1 answer:

7 0

The acquisition of additional certifications with a personal refined craft skills can increase the odds for career advancemen.

<h3>What is a career advancement?</h3>

An advancement is achieved in a career if a professional use their skill sets, determination or perserverance to achieve new career height.

An example of a career advancement is when an employee progresses from entry-level position to management and transits from an occupation to another.

Therefore, the Option A is correct.

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PLEASE HELP!!! ILL GIVE BRANLIEST *EXTRA POINTS* dont skip :((

Oksi-84 [34.3K]

The first one is the answer

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A car is traveling at sea level at 78 mi/h on a 4% upgrade before the driver sees a fallen tree in the roadway 150 feet away. Th

Dmitrij [34]

Answer: V = 47.7 mi/hr

Explanation:

first we calculate elements of aero-dynamic resistance

Ka = p/2 * CD * A.f

p is the density of air(0.002378 slugs/ft^3) for zero altitude, CD is the drag coefficient(0.35) and A.f is the front region of the vehicle

so we substitute

Ka = 0.002378/2 * 0.35 * 18

Ka = 0.00749

Now we calculate the final speed of the vehicle (V2) using the relation;

S = (YbW/2gKa)In[ (UW + KaV1^2 + FriW ± Wsinθg) / (UW + KaV2^2 + FriW ± Wsinθg)

WE SUBSTITUTE

150 = (1.04 * 2700 / 2 * 32.2 * 0.0075) In [(0.8 * 2700 + 0.0075 *(78mil/hr * 5280ft/1min * 1hr/3600s)^2 + 0.017 * 2700 ± 2700 * 0.04) / (0.8 * 2700 + 0.0075 * V2^2 + 0.017 * 2700 ± 2700 * 0.04)]

150 = (2808/0.483) In [(2160 + 98.16 + 153.9) / ( 2160 + 0.0075V2^2 + 153.9)]

150 = 5813.66 In [ (2160 + 98.16 + 153.9) / ( 2160 + 0.0075V2^2 + 153.9)]

divide both sides by 5813.66

0.0258 = In [ (2412.06) / ( 0.0075V2^2 + 2313.9)]

take the e^ of both side

e^0.0258 = (2412.06) / ( 0.0075V2^2 + 2313.9)

1.0261 = (2412.06) / ( 0.0075V2^2 + 2313.9)]

(0.0075V2^2 + 2313.9) = 2412.06 / 1.0261

(0.0075V2^2 + 2313.9) = 2350.7

0.0075V2^2 = 2350.7 - 2313.9

0.0075V2^2 = 36.8

V2^2 = 36.8 / 0.0075

V2^2 = 4906.6666

V2 = √4906.6666

V2 = 70.0476 ft/s

converting to miles per hour

V2 = 70.0476 ft/s * 1 mil / 5280 ft * 3600s / 1hr

V = 47.7 mi/hr

8 0

3 years ago

A material point in equilibrium has 1 independent component of shear stress in the xz plane. a)True b)- False

ozzi

Answer:

True

Explanation:

For point in xz plane the stress tensor is given by $\left[\begin{array}{ccc}Dx_{} &txz\\tzx&Dz\\\end{array}\right]$

where Dx is the direct stress along x ; Dz is direct stress along z ; tzx and txz are the shear stress components

We know that the stress tensor matrix is symmetrical which means that tzx = txz ( obtained by moment equlibrium )

thus we require only 1 independent component of shear stress to define the whole stress tensor at a point in 2D plane

8 0

3 years ago

A cylindrical specimen of steel has an original diameter of 12.8 mm. It is tested in tension its engineering fracture strength i

Mama L [17]

Answer:

a) The ductility = -30.12%

the negative sign means reduction

Therefore, there is 30.12% reduction

b) the true stress at fracture is 658.26 Mpa

Explanation:

Given that;

Original diameter $d_{o}$ = 12.8 mm

Final diameter $d_{f}$ = 10.7

Engineering stress $\alpha _{E}$ = 460 Mpa

a) determine The ductility in terms of percent reduction in area;

Ai = π/4( $d_{o}$ )² ; Ag = π/4( $d_{f}$ )²

% = π/4 [ ( ( $d_{f}$ )² - ( $d_{o}$ )²) / ( π/4 ( $d_{o}$ )²) ]

= ( ( $d_{f}$ )² - ( $d_{o}$ )²) / ( $d_{o}$ )² × 100

we substitute

= [( (10.7)² - (12.8)²) / (12.8)² ] × 100

= [(114.49 - 163.84) / 163.84 ] × 100

= - 0.3012 × 100

= -30.12%

the negative sign means reduction

Therefore, there is 30.12% reduction

b) The true stress at fracture;

True stress $\alpha _{T}$ = $\alpha _{E}$ ( 1 + $E_{E}$ )

$E_{E}$ is engineering strain

$E_{E}$ = dL / Lo

= (do² - df²) / df² = (12.8² - 10.7²) / 10.7² = (163.84 - 114.49) / 114.49

= 49.35 / 114.49

$E_{E}$ = 0.431

so we substitute the value of $E_{E}$ into our initial equation;

True stress $\alpha _{T}$ = 460 ( 1 + 0.431)

True stress $\alpha _{T}$ = 460 (1.431)

True stress $\alpha _{T}$ = 658.26 Mpa

Therefore, the true stress at fracture is 658.26 Mpa

6 0

2 years ago

Instead of running blood through a single straight vessel for a distance of 2 mm, one mammalian species uses an array of 100 tin

Marina CMI [18]

Solution:

Given that :

Volume flow is, $Q_1 = 1000 \ mm^3/s$

So, $Q_2= \frac{1000}{100}=10 \ mm^3/s$

Therefore, the equation of a single straight vessel is given by

$F_{f_1}=\frac{8flQ_1^2}{\pi^2gd_1^5}$ ......................(i)

So there are 100 similar parallel pipes of the same cross section. Therefore, the equation for the area is

$\frac{\pi d_1^2}{4}=1000 \times\frac{\pi d_2^2}{4}$

or $d_1=10 \ d_2$

Now for parallel pipes

$H_{f_2}= (H_{f_2})_1= (H_{f_2})_2= .... = = (H_{f_2})_{10}=\frac{8flQ_2^2}{\pi^2 gd_2^5}$ ...........(ii)

Solving the equations (i) and (ii),

$\frac{H_{f_1}}{H_{f_2}}=\frac{\frac{8flQ_1^2}{\pi^2 gd_1^5}}{\frac{8flQ_2^2}{\pi^2 gd_2^5}}$

$=\frac{Q_1^2}{Q_2^2}\times \frac{d_2^5}{d_1^5}$

$=\frac{(1000)^2}{(10)^2}\times \frac{d_2^5}{(10d_2)^5}$

$=\frac{10^6}{10^7}$

Therefore,

$\frac{H_{f_1}}{H_{f_2}}=\frac{1}{10}$

or $H_{f_2}=10 \ H_{f_1}$

Thus the answer is option A). 10

7 0

3 years ago