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Serggg [28]
3 years ago
6

A product is currently made in a process-focused shop, where fixed costs are $9,000 per year and variable costs are $50 per unit

. The firm is considering a fundamental shift in process, to repetitive manufacturing. The new process would have fixed costs of $90,000, and variable costs of $5. The cross over is at 1800 units annually. for volumes over 1800, the process focus is cheaper.
Business
1 answer:
Ilya [14]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The cross over is at 1800 units annually. for volumes over 1800, the process focus is cheaper.

Explanation:

The crossover is at 1800 units annually.

For volumes under 1800, the process focus is cheaper and lesser; for volumes that are over 1800 units, the repetitive manufacturing focus is cheaper and lesser

Fixed cost ÷ variable cost

$90000÷50 =$1800

$9,000÷5=$1800

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Obama Company has identified that Bill Clinton’s receivable account of $100 is uncollectible. What is the journal entry needed t
DerKrebs [107]

Answer:

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts 100 Accounts Receivable 100

Explanation:

The allowance method first estimates an allowance for doubtful debts.When the company receives the actual figure of the amount that have gone wrong, it writes off the  trade receivable and utilizes the allowance provided for

<u>When allowance is estimated </u>

Bad Debts (debit)

Allowance for doubtful debts (credit)

<u>When the  actual figure of the amount that have gone wrong is obtained</u>

Allowance for doubtful debts (debit)

Account Receivable (credit)

4 0
3 years ago
When you're planning a convention, which of the following steps would you complete first? A. Select the site. B. Write the invit
blagie [28]
Hello,

Here is your answer:

I think the proper answer to this question will be option A "select a site". That's just because when planing a convention you have to find a place to hold it, form the committee, write the program, and then you have to write invites.

Your answer is A!

If you need anymore help just ask me!
7 0
3 years ago
Analysts are forecasting LifeTech Corporation's common stock price to be $120 at the end of one year. Also, LifeTech will pay a
devlian [24]

Answer:

Price to pay now for the stock = $96.278

Explanation:

<em>The price of the stock would be the present value(PV) of the future cash flow expected from it discounted at the required rate of 13%</em>

<em>Hence we would add the present value of he dividend and the resent of he price at the end of the period</em>

PV = CF × (1+r)^(-n)

<em>CF- Cash Flow</em>

<em>R- rate of return- 13%</em>

<em>n- number of years</em>

PV of dividend =  2.60 × (1.13)^(-1) =  2.30

PV of stock price after a year = 120× (1.13)^(-1) = 93.97

Price to pay now for the stock =  2.30 + 93.97 = $96.278

Price to pay now for the stock = $96.278

5 0
3 years ago
A team has been established to solve a problem with an industrial adhesive used by the firm. The three members are the​ installe
Mama L [17]

Answer:

Self-managed

Explanation:

Self managed team is management concept wherein group of diverse skill people are expected to work on their own without any supervision. This ensures collective accountability for any task undertaken. Employees have freedom to take their own decision. Self managed team concept is being implemented in organization with aim of increasing productivity, efficiency, cost saving and increased employee satisfaction.

5 0
3 years ago
If a borrower can afford to make monthly principal and interest payments of 1000 and the lender will make a 30 year loan at 5 1/
Alexus [3.1K]

Answer:

The the largest loan this buyer can afford is 14,533.75.

Explanation:

This can be determined using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

Step 1: Calculations of the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2%

PV30 = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (1)

Where;

PV30 = Present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2% =?

P = monthly payment = 1000

r = interest rate = 5 1/2% = 5.50% = 0.055

n = number of years = 30

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV30 = 1000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.055))^30) / 0.055)

PV30 = 1000 * 14.5337451711221

PV30 = 14,533.75

Step 2: Calculation of the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2%

PV20 = P * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (2)

Where;

PV30 = Present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2% =?

P = monthly payment = 1000

r = interest rate = 4 1/2% = 4.50% = 0.045

n = number of years = 20

Substitute the values into equation (1) to have:

PV20 = 1000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.045))^20) / 0.045)

PV20 = 1000 * 13.0079364514537

PV20 = 13,007.94

Conclusion

Since 14,533.75 which is the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 30 year loan at 5 1/2% is greater than the 13,007.94 which is the present value or the loan the buyer can afford for a 20 year loan at 4 1/2%, it therefore implies that the the largest loan this buyer can afford is 14,533.75.

5 0
2 years ago
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