Answer:
Creo que la respuesta es A
Step-by-step explanation:
porque u lo divide todo y es el primero porque es igual a un número entero
Answer:
I'm pretty sure SSS since it's all sides that are equal to each other.
Answer: There is no mode.
Step-by-step explanation:
The mode is the number in a data set that occurs most frequently. Count how many times each number occurs in the data set. The mode is the number with the highest tally. It's ok if there is more than one mode. And if all numbers occur the same number of times there is no mode.
Hope this helps!
Answer:
a
Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral
b
Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral
c
Since the integral has an infinite interval of integration, it is a Type 1 improper integral
d
Since the integral has an infinite discontinuity, it is a Type 2 improper integral
Step-by-step explanation:
Considering a

Looking at this we that at x = 3 this integral will be infinitely discontinuous
Considering b

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between
which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral
Considering c

Looking at this integral we see that the interval is between
which means that the integral has an infinite interval of integration , hence it is a Type 1 improper integral
Considering d

Looking at the integral we see that at x = 0 cot (0) will be infinity hence the integral has an infinite discontinuity , so it is a Type 2 improper integral
Answer:
The simplified form of expression<u> </u>(-2 - 8x) + (-4x - 10) is
-12(x + 1)
Step-by-step explanation:
It is given an expression (-2 - 8x) + (-4x - 10)
<u>To find the simplified expression of (-2 - 8x) + (-4x - 10)</u>
Let expression is given by
(-2 - 8x) + (-4x - 10) = -2 - 8x -4x -10
= -2 -10 -4x -8x
= -12 -12x
-12(x + 1) (since -12 is common in both terms)
Therefore simplified form is -12(x + 1)