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wlad13 [49]
2 years ago
5

The terms of trade between two countries refers to Multiple Choice what price the two countries agree upon for their imports and

exports. the rules governing trade between the two countries. the amount of Good A given up for Good B. the terms set by the World Trade Organization for trade.
Business
1 answer:
Fofino [41]2 years ago
3 0

The terms of trade between two countries refers to what price the two countries agree upon for their imports and exports. Because, by definition, terms of commerce refer to the ratio of export prices to import prices.

<h3>What is terms of trade?</h3>

The ratio of the index of export prices to the index of import prices is known as terms of trade.

If export prices rise faster than import prices, a country's terms of trade improve, allowing it to buy more imports for the same quantity of exports.

Thus option A is correct.

For more details about terms of trade, click here

brainly.com/question/17928017

#SPJ1

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Examples of humans depicted with the features of lions, bison, stags, or even plants suggests A. The existence of a religious li
Tanya [424]

Answer:

A. The existence of a religious life

Explanation:

The creatures which are half-animal and half-human or have features from animal ofter represent goods(Seth, Tiamat) or sons of goods (Horus)

They are described with qualities above normal human, like a good ability o see which is depicted as having the head of a falcon (Horus)

or to have mutation generate by the making of goods ( the medusa was raped by Poseidon and get hair of snakes)

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements about the segment margin is not true? In preparing a segmented income statement, the variable
Trava [24]

Answer: The segment margin is obtained by deducting the common fixed costs that have been allocated to a segment from that segment's contribution margin

Explanation:

Segment margin is referred to the net profit or the net loss that a particular segment of a business makes. Segment margin is used to know segments that are performing well.

It is also used to know the long-run profitability of a particular segment as it shows the margin that is available after the cost has been covered by a segment.

Based on the above illustration, the statement that isn't true will be "the segment margin is obtained by deducting the common fixed costs that have been allocated to a segment from that segment's contribution margin".

This is false as segment margin is gotten after the traceable fixed costs of a segment has been subtracted from the contribution margin of that particular segment.

8 0
3 years ago
Given the total fixed-cost curve in gray and the total variable-cost curve in color, draw the total cost curve. Three points on
saveliy_v [14]

Answer:

TFC : Horizontal Line parallel to X axis

TVC : Upward sloping inverse S shape curve from origin

TC : Upward sloping increase S shape curve, with Y axis intercept = TFC

Explanation:

Total Fixed cost [TFC] is the total production expenditure, done on fixed factors of production (Eg - on machine, building etc). It is incurred even at zero level of output, stays same (constant) irrespective of output level. So, it's curve is a  constant horizontal line.

Total Variable Cost [TVC] is the total production expenditure, done on variable factors of production (Eg - on raw material). It is zero at zero level of output,  directly related to level of output thereafter. It first increases at a decreasing rate, then increases at an increasing rate. So, it's curve is inverse S upward sloping curve from origin.

Total Cost [TC] is the total cost incurred on all factors of production (fixed & variable). It is sum of TVC & TFC. As TFC is constant at all levels of output, TC changes due to change in TVC. So, TC is also directly related to output level, first increases at increasing rate & then at decreasing rate. Hence, it is also a inverse S upward sloping curve. But, it also includes constant TFC. So, the curve has intercept on Y axis = TFC (it doesn't start from origin).

4 0
3 years ago
Suppose that preferences over private consumption C and public goods G are such that these two goods are perfect substitutes, th
Temka [501]

Answer:

Please see explanation below.

Explanation:

Public goods are goods consumed collectively, they are provided for all members of a community,

no one can be excluded from their consumption. The consumption by one person does not decrease the consumption possibilities for others. Public goods are available for everybody without paying, and these goods cannot be rationed: they are either provided for the whole community, or for no one. Examples of public goods include the public lighting system, public roads, radio broadcasts, national defence, lighthouses, town pavements, etc.

Private goods, on the other hand, are goods consumed individually, and if a unit has been consumed by

someone, then no one else can also consume the same unit. Private goods are scarcely available, and consuming a unit will decrease the amount available for further consumption. Therefore consumers compete for private goods, i.e. private goods are rival in consumption. Consumers can consume them if they pay the price, non-payers are excluded from consumption.

In the first scenario, given that both the private good and public good are perfect substitutes, the optimum quantity produced by the government is at the point where marginal social cost is equal to the marginal social benefit. This optimum output is lower than that of the private firm because the price of public good is higher than price of private good (since marginal social cost > marginal private cost).

If b increases, that means consumers are willing to give up more units of public goods for one unit of the private good. Therefore, the quantity produced by the government will reduce.

For the second part of the question: C = aG, where a > 0.

This implies that equal or more units of the private good is consumed with a particular units of public good. The optimum output still remain at the point where marginal social cost is equal to marginal social benefit but this output level is lower than if the two goods were to be perfect substitutes.

7 0
3 years ago
Suppose a foreign investor who holds tax-exempt Eurobonds paying 10.50% is considering investing in an equivalent-risk domestic
algol13

Options:

a. 14.58%  

b. 12.83%  

c. 15.46%  

d. 16.33%  

e. 16.92%

Answer:

Correct option is A.

14.58%

Explanation:

After-tax yield = pre-tax yield x (1- marginal rate)

and Taxable-equivalent yield = tax-exempt yield / (1- marginal tax rate)

Hence Taxable-equivalent yield =.105/(1-.28)  

=.105/.72=.14583333

=14.58 %

4 0
3 years ago
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