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Karo-lina-s [1.5K]
1 year ago
7

Hey could you guys help me answer this and explain it to me? It’s math

Mathematics
2 answers:
tamaranim1 [39]1 year ago
8 0

Answer:

c = 8

Step-by-step explanation:

if d = 8, that would mean that

4 + 8/2 (because 8 has substituted for d)

then you do 8 ÷ 2 = 4

4 + 4 = 8

const2013 [10]1 year ago
3 0

Answer:

C. 8

Step-by-step explanation:

d = 8

4 + \frac{d}{2}

Substitute d for 8

4 + 8/2

Simplify

4+4

Simplify

8

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Factorize : y^3 -2y^2 -29y -42
AVprozaik [17]

Answer: (y-7)(y+3)(y+2)

Step-by-step explanation:

y^{3} -2y^{2}-29y-42\\\\(y^{2}-4y-21)(y+2)\\\\(y-7)(y+3)(y+2)\\\\

Hope this helps, have a BLESSED AND WONDERFUL DAY! As well as a great Black History Month and Valentine's day! :-)

- Cutiepatutie ☺❀❤

7 0
3 years ago
Help pls !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
marishachu [46]

Answer:

8,64,216,512

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
2 years ago
HALPPPPP!!
Semmy [17]

Answer:

20,2,0,-4,-.0625

Step-by-step explanation

3*-4=-12

depending on which side its on you can multiply or divide by -4

K= -4

3 0
2 years ago
This semester, the tuition fee increased to $5,871. If this represents an increase by 14%, what was the original fee?
MissTica
Use a calculator its easy
7 0
2 years ago
Different shapes are drawn on cards and then the cards are placed in a bag. The number of cards for each shape is shown in the t
Anvisha [2.4K]
We can first add up the cards so we know how many we have in all:
16 + 16 + 18 = 50 cards

We can do this a little bit easier if we get the "16"-cards in one number total.

16 + 16 = 32

\frac{32}{50} = 32 x 2 = \frac{64}{100}
                                         50 x 2 

\frac{64}{100} = 64 : 2 = 32 %
                                            100
We did just divide the % of two types cards on 2, so we get the %-chance of 1 type card.

I am not quite sure, but I think that 32 % is the correct answer.
6 0
3 years ago
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