Answer:
Simplify the denominator.
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x
(
x
+
3
)
(
x
−
3
)
⋅
3
x
x
2
−
5
x
+
6
Factor
x
2
−
5
x
+
6
using the AC method.
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x
(
x
+
3
)
(
x
−
3
)
⋅
3
x
(
x
−
3
)
(
x
−
2
)
Finding the LCD of a list of values is the same as finding the LCM of the denominators of those values.
(
x
+
3
)
(
x
−
3
)
,
(
x
−
3
)
(
x
−
2
)
The LCM is the smallest positive number that all of the numbers divide into evenly.
1. List the prime factors of each number.
2. Multiply each factor the greatest number of times it occurs in either number.
The number
1
is not a prime number because it only has one positive factor, which is itself.
Not prime
The LCM of
1
,
1
is the result of multiplying all prime factors the greatest number of times they occur in either number.
1
The factor for
x
+
3
is
x
+
3
itself.
(
x
+
3
)
=
x
+
3
(
x
+
3
)
occurs
1
time.
The factor for
x
−
3
is
x
−
3
itself.
(
x
−
3
)
=
x
−
3
(
x
−
3
)
occurs
1
time.
The factor for
x
−
2
is
x
−
2
itself.
(
x
−
2
)
=
x
−
2
(
x
−
2
)
occurs
1
time.
The LCM of
x
+
3
,
x
−
3
,
x
−
3
,
x
−
2
is the result of multiplying all factors the greatest number of times they occur in either term.
(
x
+
3
)
(
x
−
3
)
(
x
−
2
)
Step-by-step explanation:
there does that help
Oooh! I love this kind of math, so easy to do!
Like I say ALL the time, if you know how to solve percentages you know how to solve anything that deals with percentages. If you don't izz all gucci! :D
To solve a percentage make it a decimal & multiply. :) (SIMPLE)
- .300 % multiplied by 1000 = 300 :D you would pay 300$ a year obviously!
I'm not that great at percentage math, although it is fairly easy. I hope you can use this information too push you closer too the answer! Good Luck! <3
Step-by-step explanation:
Mechanical advantage can be defined using distances:
Mechanical advantage = input distance / output distance
Or it can be defined using forces:
Mechanical advantage = output force / input force
Solving for the output force:
Output force = mechanical advantage × input force
Plugging in values:
Output force = 2.2 × 202 N
Output force = 444.4 N
Answer:
yes, triangle DEF is similar to triangle DBC, BC corresponds to EF, and angle DCB corresponds to angle F.
Step-by-step explanation:
Part A: Angle D is congruent to angle D by the reflexive property. Since line BC is parallel to line EF then angle DCB = angle DFE by corresponding angles. Hence triangle DEF is similar to triangle DBS by the AA Similarity Postulate.
Part B: BC corresponds to EF because they are in the same order and the triangles listed DEF and DBC
Part C: Angle DCB corresponds to angle F since they are corresponding angles with the two given parallel lines BC and EF.
