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VMariaS [17]
2 years ago
15

Are EFG and HIJ similar?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Vikki [24]2 years ago
8 0
Yes, because of the AAA criteria.
You might be interested in
X=8<br><br> THE DIRECTIONS ARE ON THE TOP
AleksAgata [21]

Answer:

y = 40

Step-by-step explanation:

For #7, we are told that y = 10 when x = 2

We are also told that 'y varies directly as x'. That means there is some constant number, k, so that

Formula -->  y = kx

Since y=10 and x= 2, we substitute those numbers into the formula.

We get 10 = k × 2.  

So k has to be 5, right?

k = 5

So what is y when x = 8?

Use the formula.

y=kx ---> That gives us y = k × 8. But we know k is 5.

                                 So y = 5 × 8 = 40

                                       y = 40

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Define a variable, write an inequality, and solve each problem. # 30 Twice a number is more than the sum of that number and eigh
laiz [17]

n= number

2n > n+8

subtract n from each side

2n-n > n+8-n

n > 8

8 0
3 years ago
You are building a frame for a window. The window will be installed in the opening shown in the diagram. Determine whether the o
Elis [28]

Answer:

The opening is a rectangle

AC = 18 in

BD = 18 in

Step-by-step explanation:

9+9 = 18

since the diagonals are equal, it is a rectangle.

6 0
3 years ago
On Texas Avenue between University Drive and George Bush Drive, accidents occur according to a Poisson process at a rate of thre
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

(a) The probability is 0.6514

(b) The probability is 0.7769

Step-by-step explanation:

If the number of accidents occur according to a poisson process, the probability that x accidents occurs on a given day is:

P(x)=\frac{e^{-at}*(at)^{x} }{x!}

Where a is the mean number of accidents per day and t is the number of days.

So, for part (a), a is equal to 3/7 and t is equal to 1 day, because there is a rate of 3 accidents every 7 days.

Then, the probability that a given day has no accidents is calculated as:

P(x)=\frac{e^{-3/7}*(3/7)^{x}}{x!}

P(0)=\frac{e^{-3/7}*(3/7)^{0}}{0!}=0.6514

On the other hand the probability that February has at least one accident with a personal injury is calculated as:

P(x≥1)=1 - P(0)

Where P(0) is calculated as:

P(x)=\frac{e^{-at}*(at)^{x} }{x!}

Where a is equivalent to (3/7)(1/8) because that is the mean number of accidents with personal injury per day, and t is equal to 28 because 4 weeks has 28 days, so:

P(x)=\frac{e^{-(3/7)(1/8)(28)}*((3/7)(1/8)(28))^{x}}{x!}

P(0)=\frac{e^{-(3/7)(1/8)(28)}*((3/7)(1/8)(28))^{0}}{0!}=0.2231

Finally, P(x≥1) is:

P(x≥1) = 1 - 0.2231 = 0.7769

3 0
3 years ago
If y varies directly as x and y=3 when x=2 find y when x=8​
satela [25.4K]

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

x=2 was multiplied by 4 to get to x=8 so you multiply y=3 by 4 to make it y=12

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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