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ahrayia [7]
2 years ago
7

If the volume of a container increases what effect will this have on pressure? Why?

Physics
2 answers:
GaryK [48]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

 In a container of the same volume, a greater number of molecules results in greater pressure. Gas pressure increases as container volume decreases.

Hope this helps you!!

Please Mark me Brainleast if am correct!!

<h2><em>Thankyou for joining Brainly Communicty!!</em></h2>

frozen [14]2 years ago
5 0

As the volume of the container increases the pressure inside will decrease because the atoms have more room to move around in.

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a spaceship is traveling at a speed of 15000 km/s from planet b toward planet a the spaceship sends out a signal with a waveleng
Bumek [7]

Answer: 4nmeter

Explanation: The two observer a and b will measure the same wavelength since the speed of the space craft is very small compared with the speed of light c. That is

V which is the speed of space craft 15000km/s = 15000000m/s

Comparing this with the speed of light c 3*EXP(8)m/s we have

15000000/300000000

= 0.05=0.1

Therefore the speed of the space craft V in terms of the speed of light c is 0.1c special relativity does not apply to object moving at such speed. So the wavelength would not be contracted it will remain same for both observers.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help, I do not understand
Anettt [7]
I think the key here is to be exquisitely careful at all times, and
any time we make any move, keep our units with it.

We're given two angular speeds, and we need to solve for a time.

Outer (slower) planet:
Angular speed =  ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/ω seconds .

Inner (faster) planet:
Angular speed =  2ω  rad/sec
Time per unit angle =  (1/2ω)  sec/rad
Angle per revolution = 2π rad
Time per revolution = (1/2ω sec/rad) · (2π rad) = 2π/2ω sec = π/ω seconds.

So far so good.  We have the outer planet taking 2π/ω seconds for one
complete revolution, and the inner planet doing it in only π/ω seconds ...
half the time for double the angular speed.  Perfect !

At this point, I know what I'm thinking, but it's hard to explain.
I'm pretty sure that the planets are in line on the same side whenever the
total elapsed time is something like a common multiple of their periods.
What I mean is:

They're in line, SOMEwhere on the circles, when

     (a fraction of one orbit) = (the same fraction of the other orbit)    
AND
     the total elapsed time is a common multiple of their periods.

Wait !  Ignore all of that.  I'm doing a good job of confusing myself, and
probably you too.  It may be simpler than that.  (I hope so.)  Throw away
those last few paragraphs.

The planets are in line again as soon as the faster one has 'lapped'
the slower one ... gone around one more time.  
So, however many of the longer period have passed, ONE MORE
of the shorter period have passed.  We're just looking for the Least
Common Multiple of the two periods.

      K (2π/ω seconds)  =  (K+1) (π/ω seconds)

                     2Kπ/ω   =    Kπ/ω + π/ω

Subtract  Kπ/ω :    Kπ/ω = π/ω

Multiply by  ω/π :      K  =  1

(Now I have a feeling that I have just finished re-inventing the wheel.)

And there we have it:

     In the time it takes the slower planet to revolve once,
     the faster planet revolves twice, and catches up with it.
    
     It will be  2π/ω  seconds before the planets line up again.
    
     When they do, they are again in the same position as shown
     in the drawing.

To describe it another way . . . 

     When Kanye has completed its first revolution ...

     Bieber has made it halfway around.

     Bieber is crawling the rest of the way to the starting point while ...

     Kanye is doing another complete revolution.

     Kanye laps Bieber just as they both reach the starting point ...

     Bieber for the first time, Kanye for the second time.


You're welcome.  The generous bounty of 5 points is very gracious,
and is appreciated.  The warm cloudy water and green breadcrust
are also delicious.
5 0
2 years ago
yesenia wants to bake cookies in her electric oven. the oven will transform electrical energy into ________ energy?
lana [24]
<span>The oven will transform electrical energy into heat energy</span>
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A polar bear runs at a speed of 11 m/s and has a mass of 380.2 kg. How much Kinetic energy does the bear have?
Yanka [14]

Answer:

\boxed{\sf Kinetic \ energy \ of \ the \ bear (KE) = 23002.1 \ J}

Given:

Mass of the polar bear (m) = 6.8 kg

Speed of the polar bear (v) = 5.0 m/s

To Find:

Kinetic energy of the polar bear (KE)

Explanation:

Formula:

\boxed{ \bold{\sf KE =  \frac{1}{2} m {v}^{2} }}

Substituting values of m & v in the equation:

\sf \implies KE =  \frac{1}{2}  \times 380.2 \times  {11}^{2}

\sf \implies KE = \frac{1}{ \cancel{2}}  \times  \cancel{2} \times 190.1 \times 121

\sf \implies KE = 190.1 \times 121

\sf \implies KE = 23002.1 \: J

\therefore

Kinetic energy of the polar bear (KE) = 23002.1 J

5 0
3 years ago
Chapter 14, Problem 042 A flotation device is in the shape of a right cylinder, with a height of 0.588 m and a face area of 4.19
Alisiya [41]

Answer:

The workdone is  W = 9.28 * 10^{3} J

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The height of the cylinder is  h = 0.588\ m

   The face Area is  A = 4.19 \ m^2

    The density of the cylinder is \rho  =  0.346 * \rho_w

     Where \rho_w is the density of freshwater which has a constant value

              \rho_w = 1000 kg/m^3

     

Now  

     Let the final height of the device under the water be  =  h_f

      Let  the initial volume underwater be = V_n

     Let the initial height under water be  = h_i

      Let the final volume under water be  = V_f

According to the rule of floatation

        The weight of the cylinder =  Upward thrust

This is mathematically represented as

          \rho_c g V_n = \rho_w gV_f

         \rho_c A h = \rho A h_f

So      \frac{0.346 \rho_w}{\rho_w} = \frac{h_f}{h}

   =>     \frac{h_f}{h_c}  = 0.346

Now the work done is mathematically represented as  

          W = \int\limits^{h_f}_{h} {\rho_w g A (-h)} \, dh

               =   \rho_w g A [\frac{h^2}{2} ] \left | h_f} \atop {h}} \right.

              = \frac{g A \rho}{2}  [h^2 - h_f^2]

              = \frac{g A \rho}{2} (h^2)  [1  - \frac{h_f^2}{h^2} ]

Substituting values

        W = \frac{(9.8 ) (4.19) (10^3)}{2} (0.588)^2 (1 - 0.346)

        W = 9.28 * 10^{3} J

4 0
2 years ago
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