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kenny6666 [7]
3 years ago
7

An arithmetic sequence is given below.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Dimas [21]3 years ago
6 0

The answer is

a (n) = -3n +22

NikAS [45]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Nth term: -3n+19

Step-by-step explanation:

You can see the sequence is decreasing by 3 each time so the Nth term is -3n.

The 0 term would therefore be 19 so the formula would be -3n+19.

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What’s the answer cause I need it bad
pentagon [3]

Answer:  (-9,-3)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the following system of equations:

\left \{ {{2x=-78-20y} \atop {-x=-51-20y}} \right.

In order to solve the System of equations, you can use the Substitution method. The steps are:

1. You can solve for "x" from the second equation:

-x=-51-20y\\\\x=51+20y

2. Substitute the equation obtained into the first original equation:

2x=-78-20y\\\\2(51+20y)=-78-20y

3. Now you must solve for "y":

102+40y=-78-20y\\\\40y+20y=-78-102\\\\60y=-180\\\\y=\frac{-180}{60}\\\\y=-3

4. Substitute the value of "y" into the equation x=51+20y and evaluate:

x=51+20(-3)\\\\x=51-60\\\\x=-9

Then, the solution is:

(-9,-3)

8 0
3 years ago
What is the probability of drawing a 6 or a king,​
Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You didn't give much information, and it depends if your deck of cards includes a pair of Jokers.

There are 52 cards in a deck, not including Jokers, otherwise there are 54.

In a non-Joker deck the chances of drawing a King or 6 is 8/52 or roughly 15.4% in a deck with 2 Jokers your chance is 14.8%.

5 0
3 years ago
In a viral pool test it is known that in a group of five (5) people, exactly one (1) will test positive. If they are tested one
creativ13 [48]

Answer:

\frac{4}{20} or 0.2 or 20%

Step-by-step explanation:

For only two tests to be needed this means that the first test would need to come back as negative and the second test would be to come back as positive. Therefore, to find the probability of this happening we first need to find the probability of each individual test and multiply them together.

The first test needs to come back negative, there are four negative individuals out of the total 5 that are in the group. Therefore, the probability of the first test is 4/5.

Now we remove the individual that has just been tested and we are left with 4 total subjects in the group, of which only 1 is positive. Therefore, the probability of the second test is 1/4. Now we need to multiply these two probabilities together to get the probability of only needing two tests.

\frac{4 * 1}{5 * 4} = \frac{4}{20} or 0.2 or 20%

3 0
3 years ago
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LUCKY_DIMON [66]
? Wth.....................
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3 years ago
What would the graph of the solution to the following inequality look like?
yan [13]

Answer: A. An OPEN circle on the number 5 and an arrow shading to the RIGHT.

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