The Bernoulli distribution is a distribution whose random variable can only take 0 or 1
- The value of E(x2) is p
- The value of V(x) is p(1 - p)
- The value of E(x79) is p
<h3>How to compute E(x2)</h3>
The distribution is given as:
p(0) = 1 - p
p(1) = p
The expected value of x2, E(x2) is calculated as:

So, we have:

Evaluate the exponents

Multiply

Add

Hence, the value of E(x2) is p
<h3>How to compute V(x)</h3>
This is calculated as:

Start by calculating E(x) using:

So, we have:


Recall that:

So, we have:

Factor out p

Hence, the value of V(x) is p(1 - p)
<h3>How to compute E(x79)</h3>
The expected value of x79, E(x79) is calculated as:

So, we have:

Evaluate the exponents

Multiply

Add

Hence, the value of E(x79) is p
Read more about probability distribution at:
brainly.com/question/15246027
Answer:
(f o g)(-2)= 11
Step-by-step explanation:
as you may already know, to get the inverse of any expression, we start off by doing a quick switcheroo on the variables, and then solve for "y".
![\bf \stackrel{f(x)}{y}=x^3-9\implies \stackrel{\textit{quick switcheroo}}{\underline{x}=\underline{y}^3-9}\implies x+9=y^3\implies \sqrt[3]{x+9}=\stackrel{f^{-1}(x)}{y}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cbf%20%5Cstackrel%7Bf%28x%29%7D%7By%7D%3Dx%5E3-9%5Cimplies%20%5Cstackrel%7B%5Ctextit%7Bquick%20switcheroo%7D%7D%7B%5Cunderline%7Bx%7D%3D%5Cunderline%7By%7D%5E3-9%7D%5Cimplies%20x%2B9%3Dy%5E3%5Cimplies%20%5Csqrt%5B3%5D%7Bx%2B9%7D%3D%5Cstackrel%7Bf%5E%7B-1%7D%28x%29%7D%7By%7D)
i think the best answer for this question is A)