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marta [7]
2 years ago
9

Ben thinks that the largest place value that 5.6 and 1.78 have in common is the tenths place. Nichole thinks that the largest pl

ace value they have in common is the ones place.
Answer the following in complete sentences:

Who is correct, Ben or Nichole?
Write how you would explain your answer to the person who answered incorrectly.
Mathematics
1 answer:
-Dominant- [34]2 years ago
3 0

The place values in 5.6 and 1.78 are the positions of the digits in the numbers

  • The largest place value common in 5.6 and 1.78 is the ones place
  • Nichole is correct

<h3>How to determine who is correct?</h3>

In a number, the non-zero digit at the left-most position is the greatest place value

This means that:

The greatest place value in 5.6 is 5 (i.e. ones place)

The greatest place value in 1.78 is 1 (i.e. ones place)

So, we can conclude that the largest place value common in 5.6 and 1.78 is the ones place

Hence, Nichole is correct

Read more about place values at:

brainly.com/question/12386995

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What is the probability of these events when we randomly select a permutation of {1,2, ..., n} where n≥4? a) 1 precedes 2 c) 1 i
Paraphin [41]

Answer:

a) 1/2

b) 1/n

c) 1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

a) For each permutation, either 1 precedes 2 or 2 precedes 1. For each permutation in which 1 precedes 2, we can swap 1 and 2 to obtain a permutation in which 2 preceds 1. Thus, half of the total permutations will involve in 1 preceding 2, hence, the probability for a permutation having 1 before 2 is 1/2.

c) If 2 is at the start of the permutation, then it is impossible for 1 to be before 2. If that is not the case, then 1 has a probability of 1/n-1 to be exactly in the position before 2. We can divide in 2 cases using the theorem of total probability,

P( 1 immediately preceds 2) = P (1 immediately precedes 2 | 2 is at position 1) * P(2 is at position 1) + P(1 immediately precedes 2 | 2 is not at position 1) * P(2 is not at position 1) = 0 * 1/n + (1/n-1)*(n-1/n) = 1/n.

d) We can divide the total of permutations in 4 different groups with equal cardinality:

  • Those in which n precedes 1 and n-1 precedes 2
  • those in which n precedes 1 and 2 precedes n-1
  • those in which 1 precedes n and n-1 precedes 2
  • those in which 1 precedes n and 2 precedes n-1

All this groups have equal cardinality because we can obtain any element from one group from another by making a permutations between 1 and n and/or 2 and n-1.

This means that the total amount of favourable cases (elements of the first group) are a quarter of the total, hence, the probability of the event is 1/4.

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X minus two times Y.
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What percent of 9.2 m is 2.5
Nadusha1986 [10]
To solve this, you just simply divide to get a decimal and then convert to a percentage.

2.5 divided by 9.2 is equal to approximately 0.2717.

You then multiply that by one hundred to get a percentage. So the final answer is approximately 27.17%.
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Answer:

2<em>x=  1 /2 y+ 2</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

Solve for x.

<em>2x−y=4</em>

Add y to both sides.

<em>2x−y+y=4+y </em>

<em>2x=y+4</em>

Divide both sides by 2.

<em>2x /2  =  y+4 /2</em>

<em>x= 1/ 2 y+2</em>

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