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Tasya [4]
3 years ago
7

What is the answer for. What is hg = 45g

Mathematics
1 answer:
goldenfox [79]3 years ago
4 0
To solve hg = 45g

Apply Multiplication Property of Equality which is to multiply both sides of the equation with 1/g.
  
  hg (1/g) = 45g (1/g)
               h = 45

Or you can divide both sides with the equation with g.
      
   hg / g = 45g / g

You can cancel g to both sides.
Then, 
               h = 45

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How do you do this?
ELEN [110]
Use the Pythagorean Theorem: a² + b² = c².

a and b are the legs of the right triangle, and c is the hypotenuse.

2) 5² + b² = 6²
    25 + b² = 36
    b² = 11
    b = 3.3 cm

3) 7² + b² = 8²
    49 + b² = 64
    b² = 15
    b = 3.9 cm

4) a² + 5² = 13²
     a² + 25 = 169
     a² = 144
     a = 12 cm
8 0
3 years ago
Which of the following will make a confidence interval narrower and more precise?
swat32

Answer:

B. Larger sample size and lower confidence level

Step-by-step explanation:

The margin of error of a confidence interval is given by the following formula:

M = z*\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}

In which \sigma is the standard deviation of the population and n is the size of the sample.

z is related to the confidence level. The higher the confidence level, the higher the value of Z.

So, the margin of error is direct proportion to the confidence level and inverse proportional to the sample size.

We want to decrease the margin of error.

So the correct answer is:

B. Larger sample size and lower confidence level

6 0
3 years ago
Customers at a gas station pay with a credit card (A), debit card (B), or cash (C). Assume that successive customers make indepe
Maurinko [17]

Answer:

Mean = 20

Variance = 16

Step-by-step explanation:

Solution:-

- Let X be the number of customers paying with a debit card.  X has the binomial distribution with n = 100 trials and success probability p = 0.2  

- In general, if X has the binomial distribution with (n) trials and a success probability of (p) then:

                 P[X = x] = n!/(x!(n-x)!) * p^x * (1-p)^(n-x)

                 for values of x = 0, 1, 2, ..., n  

                 P[X = x] = 0 for any other value of x.

- The probability mass function is derived by looking at the number of combination of x objects chosen from n objects and then a total of x success and n - x failures.  

- Or, in other words, the binomial is the sum of n independent and identically distributed Bernoulli trials.

                  X ~ Binomial( n = 100 , p = 0.2 )

- The mean of the binomial distribution is n * p = 20  

- The variance of the binomial distribution is n * p * (1 - p) = 16  

7 0
3 years ago
What is time-and-a-half for $7.51?
padilas [110]

Answer:

$15.2

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
The sum of three numbers is 2. the first number minus the second plus the third is negative 2−2. the first minus the third is 22
iogann1982 [59]

x is the 1st number, y is the 2nd number, z is the 3d number.

x+y+z = 2

x - y + z= -2

x - z = y +22 -----> x-y-z=22


x+y+z = 2

<u>x - y + z= -2</u>

2x + 2z =0

x + z = 0

x = -z


x - y + z= -2 and x = -z

-z - y + z = -2, y =2


x-y-z=22 and x = -z, and y = 2 -----> x -2 +x = 22 --->2x = 24 ----> x = 12

x= -z -----> z = - 12


7 0
3 years ago
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