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1 year ago

If A=P+I make the subject as P

Mathematics

1 answer:

notka56 [123]1 year ago

4 0

Answer:

$P = A - I$

Step-by-step explanation:

A = P + I (Given)

$\implies P = A - I$

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If I am going 94 miles every 60 hours, how many miles per hour am I going?

Marrrta [24]

Answer:

1.56666666667 MPH simplified its 1.5MPH

Step-by-step explanation:

divide 94 by 60 to get the constant speed of mph.

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Gina wants to take dance classes. She compares two dance studios to determine which has the best deal for her. Dance World charg

fomenos

Answer:

10 classes

Step-by-step explanation:

Given equations in the question

Dance World: y = 15x

Toe Tappers: y = 25 + 12.5x

Where,

x = number of classes

Equate the total cost at both dance studios

15x = 25 + 12.5x

Collect like terms

15x - 12.5x = 25

2.5x = 25

Divide both sides by 2.5

2.5x / 2.5 = 25 / 2.5

x = 10 classes

x = number of classes = 10

4 0

2 years ago

Suppose that a box contains r red balls and w white balls. Suppose also that balls are drawn from the box one at a time, at rand

dybincka [34]

Answer: Part a) $P(a)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}$

part b) $P(b)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}+\frac{r}{\binom{r+w}{r}}$

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability is calculated as follows:

We have proability of any event E = $P(E)=\frac{Favourablecases}{TotalCases}$

For part a)

Probability that a red ball is drawn in first attempt = $P(E_{1})=\frac{r}{r+w}$

Probability that a red ball is drawn in second attempt= $P(E_{2})=\frac{r-1}{r+w-1}$

Probability that a red ball is drawn in third attempt = $P(E_{3})=\frac{r-2}{r+w-1}$

Generalising this result

Probability that a red ball is drawn in [tex}i^{th}[/tex] attempt = $P(E_{i})=\frac{r-i}{r+w-i}$

Thus the probability that events $E_{1},E_{2}....E_{i}$ occur in succession is

$P(E)=P(E_{1})\times P(E_{2})\times P(E_{3})\times ...$

Thus $P(E)$ = $\frac{r}{r+w}\times \frac{r-1}{r+w-1}\times \frac{r-2}{r+w-2}\times ...\times \frac{1}{w}\\\\P(E)=\frac{r!}{(r+w)!}\times (w-1)!$

Thus our probability becomes

$P(E)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}$

Part b)

The event " r red balls are drawn before 2 whites are drawn" can happen in 2 ways

1) 'r' red balls are drawn before 2 white balls are drawn with probability same as calculated for part a.

2) exactly 1 white ball is drawn in between 'r' draws then a red ball again at $(r+1)^{th}$ draw

We have to calculate probability of part 2 as we have already calculated probability of part 1.

For part 2 we have to figure out how many ways are there to draw a white ball among (r) red balls which is obtained by permutations of 1 white ball among (r) red balls which equals $\binom{r}{r-1}$

Thus the probability becomes $P(E_i)=\frac{\binom{r}{r-1}}{\binom{r+w}{r}}=\frac{r}{\binom{r+w}{r}}$

Thus required probability of case b becomes $P(E)+ P(E_{i})$

= $P(b)=\frac{1}{\binom{r+w}{r}}+\frac{r}{\binom{r+w}{r}}\\\\$

7 0

3 years ago

You can buy 7 pillows at jensen's for the same price that you can buy 6 pillows at harrison's. If one pillow costs $21.21 at har

kotykmax [81]

$21.21 × 6 = $127.26

$127.26 ÷ 7 = $18.18 cost of 1 pillow at Jenson's.

You multiply the cost of the pillow at Harrison's, $21.21, by the amount of pillows you can buy at Harrison's, 6.
Then divide the answer by the amount of pillows you can buy at Jenson's, 7. The final answer is the cost of 1 pillow at Jenson's.

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

9] A bike is being sold for 78% of its original

mestny [16]

Answer:

The new and discounted price is now $66.69

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps :)

7 0

3 years ago