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Serggg [28]
2 years ago
13

According to the tort doctrine of ________, any time an employee is liable for tortious acts in the scope of employment, the emp

loyer is also liable. Group of answer choices nolo contendere respondeat superior promissory estoppel novation frolic and detour
Business
1 answer:
My name is Ann [436]2 years ago
7 0

According to the tort doctrine of <u>respondeat superior</u> , any time an employee is liable for tortious acts in the scope of employment,

<h3>What is tortious acts?</h3>

Tortious acts is an act that occur when a person is harm as a result of another action which inturn lead to legal liability for the person who committed the act.

Hence, Respondeat superior stated that an when an employee is liable for committing  tortious acts the employer is as well liable for the same act.

Learn more about Tortious acts here:

brainly.com/question/15570864

#SPJ1

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A company had common stock with a total par value of $18,000,000 and fair value of $62,000,000; and 7% preferred stock with a to
arlik [135]

Answer:

$7,000,000

Explanation:

Accounting for Non-Controlling Interest requires measurement of stock at Fair Value.

Total fair value of firm = Fair value of common stock + Fair value of preferred stock

= $62,000,000 + $8,000,000

= $70,000,000

90% of equity represent the extent of controlling interest in the firm. Thus, remaining 10% will be the value of non-controlling interest.

As already discussed, non controlling interest requires measurement at fair value:

Non-Controlling Interest = Total Fair Value x Percentage of Non-Controlling Interest

= $70,000,000 x 10%

= $7,000,000 (Answer)

7 0
3 years ago
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DENIUS [597]

Explanation:

D: A welfare program that replaced AFDC in 1996. It eliminated the New Deal era work requirement that many people believed was designed to effectively re-enslave African Americans

7 0
2 years ago
FILL IN THE BLANK
Kaylis [27]
When the Federal Reserve sells treasury bonds to a bank, the money supply is decreased.  Since there are smaller available funds for the bank to loan (they have tied up some cash by buying the bonds), the interest rate the bank charges (all other things EQUAL!) will increase.   

Basically, what has happened is that the bank has lent money to the federal government, rather than to other lenders.  So if it has no other sources of lendable funds  AND borrowers don't have other banks to go to that are charging the current rate, the same number of borrowers competing for a smaller amount of borrowable funds will lead to a higher price, (interest rate) for those loans.
6 0
4 years ago
Briefly explain the field of money management.
Arada [10]

Answer:

Money management simply means liquidity management.This in business parlance means the ability of the organisation to have to funds required as and when due

Explanation:

Strictly means being able to receive cash from customers in short time and the ability to pay suppliers on time which means neither too much in cash than needed or too little

3 0
3 years ago
Susan, 56 years of age, and her daughter beverly, 28 years of age, are both secretaries. they both apply for the same job, and a
svetoff [14.1K]
This attitude reflects ageism.
It is a type of discrimination based on somebody's age - even though Susan is more experienced than her young daughter when it comes to this job, Beverly got the job because she is younger. So, Susan has been discriminated against because she is way older than Beverly. 
5 0
3 years ago
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