Answer:
$8,000
Explanation:
Jahwana earns $40,000:
her 401k contributions = 15% x $40,000 = $6,000
Jahwana's employer contributes $1 per $1 that she contributes but only up to 5%, so her employee's 401k contribution = 5% x $40,000 = $2,000
total annual contribution = $6,000 + $2,000 = $8,000
Professional growth and development - Bob
Mentoring - Debby
Certification - Joseph
Scholarship - Libby
Networking - Chad
Answer:
B. shifts rightward, and the point at which the PPF touches the good-X axis has to be something more than 40 units of good X and the point at which the PPF touches the good-Y axis has to be something more than 60 units
Explanation:
PPF is the graphical representation of two goods combinations which an economy can produce given resources & technology.
It is downward sloping because of two goods inverse relation given same resources & technology.
The points at which PPF touches both axis represents maximum amount of that axis good which can be produced by given resources & technology , Points on PPF reflect full efficient utilisation of resources. Points inside PPF reflect underutilisation of resources. Points outside PPF reflect unattainable combinations outside economy's productive capacity, given resources & technology unless either of them grow.
Resource increase usable for production of both goods: shifts the PPF outwards/ rightwards & the maximum potential production of both goods increases. PPF touching axis points increases from pervious at each axis - more than 40 at good X axis, more than 60 at Y axis.
The amount that must be put aside now is $458,796.85.
<h3>How much should be put aside now?</h3>
The first step is to determine the future value of the annuity:
Future value = yearly payment x annuity factor
Annuity factor = {[(1+r)^n] - 1} / r
Where:
- r = interest rate = 6%
- n = number of years = 20
$40,000 x [(1.06^20) - 1] / 0.06 = $1,471,423.65
Now, determine the present value of this amount: $1,471,423.65 / (1.06^20) =$458,796.85
To learn more about present value, please check: brainly.com/question/26537392
Answer:
A. Draw the cash flow diagram.
since the site doesn't include a drawing tool I just prepared a table to depict cash flows associated to years one through four:
Year Cash inflows
1 $50 million
2 $60 million
3 $70 million
4 $100 million
B. What is the present worth of the gains for the first three years?
- the present value of the first three cash flows = $50/1.1 + $60/1.1² + $70/1.1³ = $45.45 + $49.59 + $52.59 = $147.63 million
C. What is the present worth of the gains for all four years?
- the present value of the first three cash flows = $50/1.1 + $60/1.1² + $70/1.1³ + $100/1.1⁴ = $45.45 + $49.59 + $52.59 + $68.30 = $215.93 million
D. What is the equivalent uniform annual worth of the gains through year four?
- equivalent annual worth = (NPV x r) / [1 - (1 + r)⁻ⁿ] = ($215.93 x 0.1) / [1 - (1 + 0.1)⁻⁴] = 21.593 / 0.31699 = $68.12 million
