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umka21 [38]
3 years ago
15

A race car is one lap behind the lead race car when the lead car has 44 laps to go in a race. If the speed of the lead car is 55

.9 m/s, what must be the average speed of the second car to catch the lead car just before the end of the race (i.e., right at the finish line)? Assume 1 lap is 1.34 km. Answer in units of m/s
Physics
1 answer:
masha68 [24]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Speed of second car will be 57.17 m/sec

Explanation:

We have given lead car travels = 44 laps

1 laps = 1.34 km = 1340 m

So total distance = 1340×44 = 58960 m

Speed of lead car = 55.9 m/sec

We know that time=\frac{distance}{speed}=\frac{58960}{55.9}=1054.74sec

As the second car is 1 lap behind so distance traveled by second car = 45×1340 = 60300 m

So speed of second car will be speed=\frac{distance}{time }=\frac{60300}{1054.74}=57.17m/sec

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What are the horizontal and vertical components of a lizard’s displacement if it has climbed 7m directly up a tree?
madam [21]

Answer:

The horizontal component is zero.

The vertical component is 7\sin\theta

Explanation:

Given that,

The lizard climb 7m directly up on a tree.

We know that,

The horizontal component is

x=\cos\theta

The vertical component is

y=\sin\theta

If the lizard climb 7m directly up on a tree then,

We need to find the components

Using given data

The horizontal component of lizard is

x=0

The vertical component is

y=7\sin\theta

Hence, The horizontal component is zero.

The vertical component is 7\sin\theta

7 0
3 years ago
A 40 cm wire with a radius of 3 cm is oriented along the y axis and carries a current of 2 A. What is the magnitude of the magne
ZanzabumX [31]

Answer:

a) B = 1.99 x 10⁻⁴ Tesla

b) B = 0.88 x 10⁻⁴ Tesla

Explanation:

According to Biot - Savart Law, the magnetic field due to a currnt carrying straight wire is given as:

B = μ₀ I L/4πr²

where,

μ₀ = permebility of free space = 1.25 x 10⁻⁶ H m⁻¹

I = current = 2 A

L = Length of wire = 40 cm = 0.4 m

a)

r = radius of magnetic field = 2 cm = 0.02 m

Therefore,

B = (1.25 x 10⁻⁶ H m⁻¹)(2 A)(0.4 m)/4π(0.02 m)²

<u>B = 1.99 x 10⁻⁴ Tesla</u>

<u></u>

b)

r = radius of magnetic field = 3 cm = 0.03 m

Therefore,

B = (1.25 x 10⁻⁶ H m⁻¹)(2 A)(0.4 m)/4π(0.03 m)²

<u>B = 0.88 x 10⁻⁴ Tesla</u>

7 0
3 years ago
A plane traveled west for 4.0 hours and covered a distance of 4,400 meters what’s the velocity
tatuchka [14]

0.31m/s

Explanation:

Given parameters:

Time of travel = 4hrs = 4 x 60 x 60 = 14400s

Displacement  = 4400m due west

Unknown:

Velocity = ?

Solution:

Velocity is defined as the displacement  per unit of time. It is expressed in m/s or km/hr:

     Velocity =  \frac{displacement}{time}

     Velocity =   \frac{4400}{14400} = 0.31m/s

Learn more:

Velocity brainly.com/question/10883914

#learnwithBrainly

8 0
3 years ago
10.0 ppm 10.4 ppm 10.2 ppm 10.8 ppm 10.1 ppm 10.5 ppm 10.1 ppm Using the new instrument on the first day the technicians got a v
iren [92.7K]

Answer:

The datapoint 9.0 ppm is outlier at the 90% confidence level.

Explanation:

The old data has following values

mean=10.5 mm

standard deviation 0.2 mm

Now the mean of new values is calculated as following

mean=\frac{10+10.4+10.2+10.8+10.1+10.5+10.1}{7}\\mean=10.3 ppm

So the value as 9.0 ppm can be considered easily as outlier in  this regard.

3 0
3 years ago
Now let’s apply the work–energy theorem to a more complex, multistep problem. In a pile driver, a steel hammerhead with mass 200
andrew11 [14]

Answer:

a) v = 7.67

b) n = 81562 N

Explanation:

Given:-

- The mass of hammer-head, m = 200 kg

- The height at from which hammer head drops, s12 = 3.00 m

- The amount of distance the I-beam is hammered, s23 = 7.40 cm

- The resistive force by contact of hammer-head and I-beam, F = 60.0 N

Find:-

(a) the speed of the hammerhead just as it hits the I-beam and

(b) the average force the hammerhead exerts on the I-beam.

Solution:-

- We will consider the hammer head as our system and apply the conservation of energy principle because during the journey of hammer-head up till just before it hits the I-beam there are no external forces acting on the system:

                                   ΔK.E = ΔP.E

                                  K_2 - K_1 = P_1- P_2

Where,  K_2: Kinetic energy of hammer head as it hits the I-beam

             K_1: Initial kinetic energy of hammer head ( = 0 ) ... rest

             P_2: Gravitational potential energy of hammer head as it hits the I-beam. (Datum = 0)

             P_1: Initial gravitational potential energy of hammer head      

- The expression simplifies to:

                                K_2 = P_1

Where,                     0.5*m*v2^2 = m*g*s12

                                v2 = √(2*g*s12) = √(2*9.81*3)

                                v2 = 7.67 m/s

- For the complete journey we see that there are fictitious force due to contact between hammer-head and I-beam the system is no longer conserved. All the kinetic energy is used to drive the I-beam down by distance s23. We will apply work energy principle on the system:

                               Wnet = ( P_3 - P_1 ) + W_friction

                               Wnet = m*g*s13 + F*s23

                               n*s23 = m*g*s13 + F*s23

Where,    n: average force the hammerhead exerts on the I-beam.

               s13 = s12 + s23

Hence,

                             n = m*g*( s12/s23 + 1) + F

                             n = 200*9.81*(3/0.074 + 1) + 60

                             n = 81562 N

                               

                                                   

6 0
3 years ago
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