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laila [671]
2 years ago
8

P waves ________. P waves ________. are faster than S waves and surface waves have higher amplitudes than do S waves propagate o

nly in solids produce the strongest ground shaking
Physics
1 answer:
Tomtit [17]2 years ago
5 0

P waves are faster than S waves and surface waves.

<h3>Surface waves</h3>

A surface wave in physics is a mechanical wave that travels at the interface of two different media. Gravity waves on the surface of liquids, like ocean waves, are an example that is frequently used. When two liquids with different densities come together, gravity waves can also form at that junction. Solid surfaces can experience elastic surface waves like Rayleigh or Love waves. The way that electromagnetic waves can be steered along a gradient in refractive index or at the boundary between two substances with varying dielectric constants is known as "surface wave" propagation. A guided wave that travels relatively close to the Earth's surface constitutes a ground wave in radio transmission.

Learn more about surface waves here:

brainly.com/question/13779567

#SPJ4

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You can identify a pure substance if you know it's ?
Vika [28.1K]
If you know it's physical properties
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
At which point is the velocity the greatest?
zhuklara [117]

Answer:

a) The velocity is maximum at B.

b) The velocity is 0 at C and A.

c) The acceleration will be 0 at B

d) The acceleration is maximum at C and A.

Explanation:

In the attached image, we can see two sketches the first one is based on the principle os energy conservation and we can appreciate easily when the velocity is the greatest and when it will be 0.

In points A and C we have the maximum potential energy because the pendulum is at the highest elevation with respect to the reference point. And when the pendulum is in point B all the potential energy had been transformed into kinetic energy and therefore we will have the maximum velocity at this point.

For the acceleration analysis, we see the second sketch, this one is showing a free body diagram of the pendulum when it is forming a theta angle with respect to the vertical plane. And applying Newton's second law and contemplating the forces that are acting over the pendulum we have the equation showed in the image.

This equation shows that the acceleration which has the same direction as the velocity depends on the sin(theta) and we know that the equation will be zero (0) when the angle theta is 0. It means the acceleration will be 0 at point B. And maximum at points C and A.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Lemonade powder is stirred into water until it dissolves. Which are true statements?
ASHA 777 [7]
Also B. Water is the solvent is correct
6 0
3 years ago
A 6cm diameter horizontal pipe gradually narrows to 4cm.
Rom4ik [11]

Answer:Q=0.5612 m^3/s

Explanation:

Given

diameter of pipe(d_1)=6 cm

diameter of pipe(d_2)=4 cm

P_1=32 kPa

P_2=24 kPa

A_1=\frac{\pi }{4}6^2=9\pi cm^2

A_2=\frac{\pi }{4}4^2=4\pi cm^2

v_1=\frac{Q}{A_1}

Applying bernoulli's equation

\frac{P_1}{\rho g}+\frac{v^2_1}{2g}+z_1=\frac{P_2}{\rho g}+\frac{v^2_2}{2g}+z_2

\frac{P_1}{\rho g}+\frac{\frac{Q^2}{A_1^2}}{2g}+z_1=\frac{P_2}{\rho g}+\frac{\frac{Q^2}{A_2^2}}{2g}+z_2

since z_1=z_2

\frac{32\times 10^3}{10^3\times 9.81}+\frac{Q^2}{2A_1^2g}=\frac{24\times 10^3}{10^3\times 9.81}+\frac{Q^2}{2A_2^2g}

Q^2=\frac{8\times 2\times 81\pi ^2\times 16\pi ^2\times 10^{-4}}{65\pi ^2}

Q^2=3149.3722\times 10^{-4}

Q=\sqrt{3149.3722\times 10^{-4}}

Q=0.5612 m^3/s

4 0
3 years ago
R S ( M ) = 2 G M c 2 , where G is the gravitational constant and c is the speed of light. It is okay if you do not follow the d
padilas [110]

The provided question's answer is "Schwarzschild radius".

The conversion factor between mass and energy is the speed of light squared.

GM/r stands for gravitational potential energy, also known as energy per unit mass.

GM/rc² then has "mass per unit mass" units. In other words, as mass/mass splits out in a dimensional analysis, "dimensionless per unit."

The derivation yields a formula for time or space coordinate ratios requiring sqrt(1 - 2GM/rc²). This number becomes 0 when r=2GM/c2, or the formula becomes infinite if in the denominator. However, there is no justification for using c² as a conversion factor there. Consider the initial expression sqrt(1 - 2GM/rc²).

Assume that m is used as the test particle's mass instead of 1. Then you have sqrt(m - 2GMm/rc² and mass units. This expression denotes that the rest energy of the test mass m you introduced into the gravitational field is "gone" at that radius.

The 2 would be absent if the gravitational field were Newtonian. However, at the event horizon, Einstein gravity is slightly stronger than Newton gravity, resulting in the factor 2 in qualitative terms.

So, the given equation is of Schwarzschild radius.

Learn more about Schwarzschild radius here:

brainly.com/question/12647190

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3 0
3 years ago
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