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Ulleksa [173]
1 year ago
9

A projectile is launched with initial velocity vo. If a second projectile is launched with half of the initial velocity of the f

irst projectile. Compare the range of the second projectile with the first one:
Physics
1 answer:
brilliants [131]1 year ago
3 0

Comparison of the range:

If a second projectile is launched with half of the initial velocity of the first projectile. The range of the second projectile is one-fourth of the first one.

Calculation:

Step-1:

It is given that the first particle has an initial velocity of v_0, and the second particle has an initial velocity of \frac{v_0}{2}. It is required to compare the range of the second projectile with the first one.

It is known that the range of a projectile is calculated as,

R=\frac{u^{2} \sin 2 \theta}{g}

Where u is the initial speed, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and \theta is the angle at which the particle is thrown.

This problem \theta is the same in both cases.

Step-2:

Therefore the range of the first projectile is,

R_1=\frac{v_0^{2} \sin 2 \theta}{g}

The range of the second projectile is,

$$\begin{aligned}R_2&=\frac{(\frac{v_0}{2})^{2} \sin 2 \theta}{g}\\&=\frac{v_0^2\sin 2 \theta}{4g}\\\end{aligned}$$

Therefore,

$$\begin{aligned}\\\frac{R_2}{R_1}&=\frac{1}{4}\\\Rightarrow R_2&=\frac{1}{4}R_1\\\end{aligned}\\$$

Learn more about the range of a projectile here:

brainly.com/question/17016688

#SPJ4

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Gemiola [76]

Answer:

So A we cant sadly do because we cant draw. B is going to be kinetic. Thats because static friction means it stays in one place, for kinetic it means moving. So it will be 0.05 as the coefficient of the friction. Sadly, I cannot calculate C. You will have to use trigonemetry but I cannot fit that big an explanation.

Answer to A: the free body diagram would be the ski things inclined with gravity, friction, and  air resistance. I except you know which directions

Answer to B: Kinetic friction is the answer.

Answer to C: Find on own, I cannot write super big explanations - use trigonometry.

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3 years ago
ow long must a simple pendulum be if it is to make exactly ten swings per second? (That is, one complete vibration takes exactly
Igoryamba
The period T of a pendulum is given by:
T=2 \pi  \sqrt{ \frac{L}{g} }
where L is the length of the pendulum while g=9.81 m/s^2 is the gravitational acceleration.

In the pendulum of the problem, one complete vibration takes exactly 0.200 s, this means its period is T=0.200 s. Using this data, we can solve the previous formula to find L:
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4 0
3 years ago
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igomit [66]

Answer:

An outside force

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Answer:

v =2.02

Explanation:

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^^^^this is a not a perfect square  

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